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Happened to come across this old thread via a google search. Anyways, we were asked to prove this for a homework assignment. Obviously Cantor's proof is elegant and so it is widely used. For my proof, I constructed a 1-to-1 mapping with the natural numbers mapping to their reciprocal. Then I merely pointed out a real number in that interval (I used 2/3).
Does this properly prove that there are more reals than natural numbers or am I missing something?
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