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Why are the last numbers written 09 and 00 rather than 9 and 0? Is that supposed to be a clue?
z=y is the plane at 45° to the xy-plane passing through the x-axis. The intersection of the plane
with the solid is a right triangle whose base (y-length) is and whose height (z-length) is also since z = y. The area of this triangle is therefore . Hence the volume of the solid is[align=center]
[/align]Hint:
So you double the tens place and quadruple the hundreds place and probably 8 times the thousands place, and add them together, then repeat to make smaller for the answer of mod 8.
Not necessary, since 1000 is divisible by 8. For any number with four or more digits, you only need to concentrate on the first three digits on the right. Thus 6532 (mod 8) = 532 (mod 8) and 123456789 (mod 8) = 789 (mod 8).
This reason it works is this. Suppose 100a+10b+c is your three-digit number. Doing what you say produces 4a+2b+c. The difference between this and your three-digit number is 96a+8b = 8(12a+b), which is divisible by 8; hence the two numbers are equal mod 8.
Every metric space can be completed in a way similar to the construction of the real numbers from the rationals by equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences. http://z8.invisionfree.com/DYK/index.php?showtopic=193
I hope this is correct.
By AMGM,
and
Hence
A word about the cancellation law. In a group, the cancellation law applies because every element has an inverse: if a, b, c are elements of a group and ab = ac, we can multiply on the left by the inverse of a to get b = c. This does not apply to elements of a ring under multiplication because multiplicative inverses do not always exist in a ring. If a, b, c are elements of a ring and ab = ac, we cannot conclude that b = c (even if a ≠ 0). Example:
In the ring of 2×2 matrices over the integers, take
In the case of the integers, it is true that ab = ac implies b = c if a ≠ 0. The reason, however, is NOT the cancellation law; the reason is because the integers form an ordered ring. The order axioms are what force the integers to be an integral domain.
I will perhaps discuss more of this in the Euler Avenue section when I have time.
From 2a=0 we can write 2*a=2*0, and then from cancellation (assuming you've problem that) a=0.
No, you cannot use the cancellation law here! The integers do not form a group under multiplication, so the cancellation law does not apply. Use the fact that the integers are an integral domain.
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[/align]so we need to show that
.We first rewrite some of the factors in this product:
Note that this is equivalent to multiplying by
which means that it leaves the value of the product unchanged. Doing this for all i, j, we can ensure that all the factors in the denominator are of the form for , with the corresponding factors in the numerator the same way round. Henceas required.
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[/align]so we need to show that
.We first rewrite some of the factors in this product:
Note that this is equivalent to multiplying by
which means that it leaves the value of the product unchanged. Doing this for all i, j, we can ensure that all the factors in the denominator are of the form for , with the corresponding factors in the numerator the same way round. Henceas required.