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#1 Re: Help Me ! » Boolean algebra. » 2011-03-25 04:19:28

NRG
gAr wrote:

Hi,

-------------------------------------------------------------------------

I don't remember the name of the rules!

Thanks!

The line is where I was getting stuck every time. I was not applying De Morgan's law here because I thought that since p(x) was preceded by ¬ I was not allowed!

Using what you've written I've finally understood that the law applies to single.. as well as boolean expressions such as ¬p(x)

Thanks again.

NRG

#2 Re: Help Me ! » Boolean algebra. » 2011-03-25 00:44:33

NRG

Hi,

Yes, that has been the first step I have taken in most of my attempts. (It seems like this is just trial and error..)

So I have this:

Step 1: re-writing ->

(And that's more or less where I come undone.)

Step 2: Extended De Morgan(i)

I think I'm negating wrong with that step, I don't know whether to negate the whole expression like I have, or to negate p(x) and (-qx or r(x) separately, or to negate each term separately.

I've tried all of those anyway..

#3 Help Me ! » Boolean algebra. » 2011-03-24 12:31:24

NRG
Replies: 5

Hi guys,

I'm trying to show this equivalence using boolean algebra, but I'm completely stumped. (I've spent about 20 hours and have got nowhere).

Any clues on where to start? I've tried rewriting -> as a first step as well as extended de morgan(i), but I've been at this for so long now I'm beginning to wonder whether de morgan was lying.dunno

Regards

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