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Thats right!
This is how it is solved.
40 litres of milk and water contain 10% water.
Therefore, the milk content is 36 litres and water is 4 litres.
Lets assume x litres of water are added to make water 20%.
The ratio of water to the total becomes
4+x/40+x
this is equal to 20/100 or 1/5.
4+x/40+x = 1/5,
5(4+x) = 40+x
20+5x = 40+x
4x=20
x=5 litres
Don't hate Mathematics, Zoe! Mathematics is fun, believe me!
I wonder if ganesh would like to play?
I am too old...I am more than 10,000 days old!
That is close to a 1,000 gallons!
who looked much like a lizard
You mean 144? My friend says it is ___!
I can live on 100 litres of coke a month, without food
I discovered that 2^20 ends in 76.
Thereafter, any number of the form 2^20n ends in 76.
Similarly, any number of the form 2^100n ends in 376.
Next, I had to know the last few digits of 2^500 and 2^2500.
When I learnt that they are 9376 and 09376, I was excited.
Because, any number of the form 2^500n would then have to end in 9376
and every 2^2500n would have to end in 09376.
This is what Rora was talking about. You are too young to understand this, Maxine. This is about higher powers of the number 2.
This is much more complicated than what I thought!
Outstanding! You are really supersmart!
Try this one....But don't post your reply immediately.
Let others too try.
(2) A mixture of 40 liters of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make water 20% in the new mixture?
I had one which lived with me for three years. I just love them, they are so cute
Hey you guys are pretty smart
Thanks, Jenilia. Visit the 'Games and Puzzles' topic regulalry. I shall post mathematical problems and their solutions which could be of some help to you, for the Olympiad.:)
In this topic, I shall give a problem and give the (proper mathematical) solution after a week.:D
The first one:-
The population of a town increases by 5% annually. If its population in 1995 was 138915, what was it in 1992?
Excellent! You are correct! Tell us how you did it!
If Quasimodo had stumbled upon hidden treasure, then he may have discovered
A contractor agrees to complete a work in 100 days. He engaged 140 men for the job and after doing the work for 60 days, he came to know that only half the work was completed. How many more men should he hire to finish the work in the agreed time?
When there are two numbers x and y, such that both x,y ≥1,
does it follow that y^x is always greater than x^y if x is greater than y?
No.
This is true only if y is greater than a certain CRITICAL Value.
Many years back, I tried to find this critical value of y for certain values of x.
Value of x Approximate value of y
10 1.3712886
100 1.04955
1000 1.0069805
10,000 1.000922309
100,000 1.00011514925
1,000,000 1.0000138158
10,000,000 1.00000161283
100,000,000 1.0000001843
1,000,000,000 1.0000000208
Illustration:- y^100 can be greater than 100^y only if the value of y ≥1.04955
23+18+12+22 is already greater than 30! So, it should be 'people' as pointed out by Mathsy!:)
That's because, in all the odd numbers up to 99,
there are 10 numbers ending in '5'.
5, 15, 25, 35, 45, 55, 65, 75, 85, and 95.
And, when an odd number is multiplied by a
number ending in '5', the resultant always ends in '5':)
1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/32 + 1/64 + 1/128 + 1/256 + .............1/ ∞ = 2
I cannot think beyond that.
My best wishes to you, Jenilia.
You can post all your mathematical doubts here.
We'd try to help you.
Is it also necessary to prove it for n=1 ?
First, the formula or equation is checked for values like 1,2,3 etc.Only if this test is pased, we asume it is true for an arbitrary number k. Thereafter, if it is proved true for k+1, it becomes a 'proof beyond doubt'.
There once was a boy from Montreal
Who loved to play basketball
For a team he tried out
But if he made it, I doubt
For you see, he was three feet tall!:D
Mathematical Induction is a brilliant way of proving.
For example, the sum of the first n Natural Numbers is
n(n+1)/2.
For n=1, we get 1.
For n=2, we get 3.
Therefore, the summation formula works for 1 and 2.
Let's assume it is true for an arbitrary Natural Number k.
Therefore, the sum of the first k Natural Numbers would be k(k+1)/2.
For k+1, the sum would be k(k+1)/2 + (k+1),
that is [k(k+1) + 2(k+1)]/2, or [(k+1)(k+2)]/2
And, according to the formula we had at the beginning of the proof,
the sum of the first k+1 Natural Numbers would be [(k+1)(k+2)]/2
Since the two are equal, this can be said to be true for sum up to any natural number.
Similarly, it can be proved that:-
the sum 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² +... n² = [n(n+1)(2n+1)]/6
and also
the sum 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + 4 ³ + ......... n³ = [n(n+1)/2]²
I think it is extremely perplexing here quod it is filled with members who smell like feet, but somehow they actually manage to smell differently as I have struggled to climb up lorries, which resemble large...