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Can someone explain to me why the first is independent and the 2nd is not?
Given the joint probability distribution check if the following is independent:
f(x,y)= 1/4 for:
x=-1, y=-1;
x=-1, y=1;
x=1, y=-1;
x=1, y=1
The example of nonindependence is:
f(x,y)=1/3 for:
x=0, y=0;
x=0, y=1;
x=1, y=1
but Im not sure how one is indenpendent and one isnt when my book just says the def of independence is: f(x1...xn)=f1(x1)*....fn(xn). Any help?
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