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Show by means of an example that lim [f(x)g(x)]
x!a
may exist even through neither lim f(x)
x!a
nor lim g(x) exists.
x!a
Hi rogerkitkit123;
Can you please format the problem a little better? I can't read it at all. Might be browser related, I am sorry.
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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limit absolute(f(x)g(x)) exist
but limit f(x) and limit g(x)
doesn't exist
Hi;
How about:
f(x) = 1 / x
g(x) = 1 / x^3
as x -> 0
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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so f(x)g(x) is 1/ x^4
limit also not exist?
Yes, true, the limit approaches + infinity but that is not a number so the limit does not exist. Sorry, I had a halllllllluccccccination! I multiplied wrong!!!
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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quite a difficult question=(
Hi;
How about:
f(x) = tan(x)
g(x) = cot(x)
as x -> ∞
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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this one is great!!! thanks a lot=)
Hi rogerkitkit123;
Welcome to the forum! Feels like there are more of them too!
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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