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Yes it is conterintuitive, but in fact we can dispense with the Monty Hall elimination of an empty door. The principle remains the same if we just stick to what the contestants are most likely to have chosen.
Does that persuade you?
It's a good one isn't it!
Yes, the games are both independent and random.
And yes, the odds of your game are affected by information about the other contestant's choice.
If I'm right, here's the mysterious answer:
I suspect this will be considered impossible!
As far as I can tell
Am I right?
I simply mean: you are told whether the other contestant picked the same as you or not.
I'm asking if this information changes the odds of your game. In other words:
If he picked the same as you, are the odds for your game affected?
If he picked the opposite, are the odds for your game affected?
Hope that clarifies...
This may mystify some.
Imagine two Monty Hall games taking place simultaneously on different sides of the world. The two games are completely independent.
Imagine you're a contestant in one of them.
There are three doors - two of them empty, one has a prize.
The host knows what's behind each door.
You pick a door.
The host eliminates an empty door from the remaining two.
You are asked whether you'd like to stick or swap.
You're aware of the familiar solution - that there is a 2/3 chance that the door you chose is empty and that the other has the prize.
Before you make your final decision, a phone call is made. You are about to learn whether the contestant on the other side of the world chose the same as you or the opposite.
Depending on what you learn, does this knowledge in any way affect the odds of your game?
Ok I have found a solution and (unless I've miscalculated) it works perfectly.
With this method, you are asking a chief one question while inserting it within another. The result is a guaranteed truthful reply to the question you actually want answered, but as far as the Chief is concerned he has answered the other question.
At the same time, for the purposes of your question, DA and JA can mean YES and NO respectively,, irrespective of what it means to the chiefs.
So in this solution, you could have following situation:
You ask a chief, using the implicit question "Are you the Liar?" inserted within another question.
The chief replies "DA", which will truthfully answer your inserted question reliably as YES. But the Chief is actually responding falsely to the other question and for him DA might mean NO.
Baffled?
Here's the solution.
I remember working on a problem like this, except they spoke English, there were two of them, and you needed to get through a certain door that one of them were guarding.
Yes, that one is relatively easy compared to this.
Ok, I believe I'm getting very close to a correct solution.
If I'm right, it appears that my brother iwas correct. Finding a logical solution doesn't require you to know what DA and JA means - which sounds impossible.
But my solution does require that the Hybrid chief deliberately tell the truth or lie, even if he has tossed a coin to decide which.
My brother, who says he has the seen the orignal puzzle, confounded me with the following information:
a) the solution does not require that you know the meaning of 'da' and 'ja'
b) the solution doesn't require that the hybrid's responses be anything except random sounds - i.e not deliberately true or false
That throws everything into disarray and my gut response is: impossible. My brother is lying.
I'd prefer it if we could find a question that wasn't self-referential.
So would I but I don't think there is one. At least, not a question that establishes the meaning of 'da' and 'ja' beyond all doubt from just one chief.
Making the question to one chief not self-referential would tell you the most likely synonyms of 'da' and 'ja'.
Yes mathysperson is right.
If he's allowed to do that, then I'm stuck.
As for your version Chilli that you got from Wikipedia:
Still slightly concerned about the point TheDude raised. I discuss it here.
I think that covers it...
Hmm, that is an interesting way to to determine what "ja" or "da" means. It's not what I was thinking of, but it still works.
What was your way of determining 'da' and 'ja', Chilli?
As for the rest of puzzle, I'm thinking on the same lines you put in hidden text. (I'm now doing the same with all my past and future conclusions).
That's a point I considered.
Make sense?
This is a twister alright and I'm still working on it.
The first priority for me has been to find a question that establishes the correct meanings of 'da' and 'ja'.
I beleive I've succeeded in formulating the first question to ask a chief.
Ok, so we have three chiefs. Call them "Truthteller", "Liar", and "X" - and we don't know which is which. I'm also assuming that, although we have no idea whether "X" lies or tells the truth in his answer, he fully understands the question and knowingly must do one or the other. In other words, if "X" says 'da' or 'ja', it will definitely be a conciously true or false statement, not a random utterance.
Alright here goes:
Do others agree with this analysis?
Try this version:
Monty Hall with 4 doors - hiding 2 cars and 2 goats.
You pick a door.
The host knows what's behind the doors and tosses a coin.
If it's heads, he will eliminate a car from the remaining doors.
If it's tails, he will eliminate a goat.
As it happens, the coin comes up heads and a car is eliminated.
There are three doors left (including the one you chose). Should you stick or switch?
Or are the odds 1/3 regardless?
Four boxes:
2 contain a cheque for $1000 made out to you
2 contain a bill for $1000, payable on demand.
The host knows which are which.
Choose a box.
Whichever you choose, you must keep.
There is no swapping allowed.
Now you instruct the host to reveal one bill or one prize from the remaining boxes - you can choose which is eliminated
Next, it's you who opens another of the remaining boxes.
If two of the same kind are revealed, you have nothing to lose or gain. You will neither pay or receive what is in your box.
If one of each kind is eliminated, the game is on. You must then pay or receive $1,000 - whatever your box reveals.
Can you increase your chance of getting a cheque?
Or are the odds 50/50?
If time were infinitely divisible, then neither the two minute threshold nor any other point in time could ever be reached by anyone. This is resolved by the notion that time is divided into instants that cannot be subdivided.
The question can therefore be answered if we know exactly how many of the ghost's waiting periods must occur before there is one small enough to include no more than a single instant of time.
Simon
I would say yes. If we're given that a game has proceeded, then there's an equal chance for jack or queen.
But this presents an apparent contradiction. The probability of your selection was originally 4 Jacks and 2 Queens. There are subsequently six pairs of cards remaining. You already know there is at least one Jack in each pair. As it happens, the host reveals a Jack from each pair. Apart from not cancelling any row, the host has simply confirmed what you already knew.
What information have you got that could change the 4-Jack-2-Queen probability of your selection, which was made before the host entered?
Before, we had 1/3 of the games with the player choosing a queen, and 2/3 of them with the player choosing a jack.
Now, we have 1/3 queens, 1/3 jacks, and 1/3 voided.
Agreed. More precisely:
1/3 of the time I choose the Queen - and the game proceeds
1/3 of the time I choose a Jack - and the game proceeds
1/3 of the time I choose a Jack - and the game is cancelled
This describes what happens on average, which includes 1/3 of the games actually being voided by the host. Note that 2/3 times you still choose a Jack. It is just that half of those games are cancelled. The probability of your initial selection remains unchanged.
But Mathys, you have yet to explain the situation where you have a sample of successive games that happen not to have been voided. Hence, the six row scenario where you reasonably guess you picked 4 Jacks and 2 Queens. Subsequently the host reveals 6 Jacks. He could have voided a couple of games, but didn't.
Has the probability of your selection, made before the host's actions, now changed to 3 Jacks and 3 Queens, because of the host's lack of knowledge?
Simon
the way the problem is posed means that it's impossible for him to pick a queen, and so the same logic from the original problem will follow.
Therein lies the point. In those six rows, it was not impossible for the host to have revealed a Queen. It simply turned out that he didn't do so. The way the problem is posed is to consider what happens in that event. This does not rule out other events.
Let's clarify the rules. Whenever the host reveals a Queen, that particular row is null and void, but you consider the rows that haven't been voided. The most probable scenario is that the ignorant host will randomly reveal 2 Queens. In that event, there is no reason not to stand by your initial guess that you selected 2 Queens and 4 Jacks. You know that two rows where you chose a Jack have been cancelled. This means that in the four uncancelled rows, you probably selected 2 Queens and 2 Jacks. For those rows, this does indeed confirm the odds as 50/50 whether you stick or swap.
So what happens when, inevitably, you get a game in which by chance the host revealed six Jacks?
Is the intial guess for your selection - 4 Jacks and 2 Queens - still the right one? Do you in fact have a 2/3 advantage in swapping?
As far as it affects the probability of your selection, what you're saying is:
The host revealing six Jacks by chance = The host revealing six Jacks on purpose.
If so, might it not follow that in a single game:
The host revealing one Jack by chance = The host revealing one Jack on purpose.
But it has been well established in Monty Hall that what the host reveals must be based on certain knowledge. It is only then that it is impossible for the host to reveal a Queen. This is what is said to give you the 2/3 advantage.
I appreciate your position. On average, your initial selection is always likely to be 4 Jacks and 2 Queens. You're saying, therefore, that in each game, the probability of that initial selection must remain the same, regardless of what the host randomly or knowingly reveals afterwards.
If, as expected, the ignorant host cancels two rows by showing a couple of Queens, the 50/50 odds do apply, but only to the four remaining rows, from which you probably selected 2 Jacks and 2 Queens. This would still translate to your original selection having been 4 Jacks and 2 Queens.
If the host happens not to cancel any of the six rows, nothing is removed from your initial selection. A reasonable assumption is that this selection, made before the host revealed anything, probably contains exactly what was originally likely - 4 Jacks and 2 Queens.
But doesn't this contradicts the importance of the host's state of knowledge, so crucial to the original Monty Hall solution.
If, in a single game, the host was ignorant but didn't reveal the prize - there's no end of websites that explain why this reduces the odds to 50/50.
But if true, shouldn't those odds apply to each of the six rows in a game where the host was ignorant but didn't reveal a Queen? Surely each individualcard you selected should now have a revised 50/50 chance of being a Jack or Queen - because the host had no knowledge when he revealed a Jack from each row? Wouldn't your entire six card selection, therefore, now most likely contain 3 Jacks and 3 Queens,
This would mean that the 4-Jack-2-Queen probability of your initial selection can be retrospectively changed by what a host happens to do randomly, after the fact.
A strange but true conclusion?
Simon
In previous discussions, we concluded that the host's state of knowledge was crucial.
But is this always true?
With a single game we said it was
Translate it to three cards face down - two Jacks and a Queen. The Queen represents the prize. You pick a card. You estimate correctly that there is 2/3 chance you chose a Jack. The host now reveals one of the other two cards. If he shows a Queen, the game is voided. As it happens, he reveals a Jack. You then ask him "Did you know that the card you turned over was going to be a Jack?"
If he says "Yes", your original 2/3 chance of having chosen a Jack remains intact and there is a therefore a 2/3 chance the other card is the Queen. If he says "No", the odds are reduced to 50/50.
The explanation for the 50/50 odds is clear when you consider the possible outcomes with a host who doesn't know where the Queen is.
Here are the six equally possible games using three cards - Jack1, Jack2 and the Queen. The card the player selects is X. The one the ignorant host turns over is Y. The remaining card is Z.
X Y Z
-------------
1. J1 J2 C
2. J2 J1 C
3. J1 Q J2 voided
4. J2 Q J1 voided
5. Q J1 J2
6. Q J2 J1
In those six games you will most likely originally have chosen 4 Jacks and 2 Queens. However, because the host doesn't know where the Queen is, he is most likely to nullify two out of the six games. This cancels your advantage. Nevertheless, it remains true that you originally picked 4 Jacks and 2 Queens. It is simply that the ignorant host cancelled two of the games where you chose a Jack. So whether you stick or swap, you end up with 2 Jacks and 2 Queens.
BUT
What if six games were played but none were voided?
Imagine them as six rows of cards face down, each with two Jacks and a Queen.
You selected one card randomly from each row.
You estimated that you picked 4 jacks and 2 Queens.
The host revealed a card from each row. They were all Jacks.
No games were voided.
You asked the host the same question: "Did you know that the cards you turned over would be Jacks?"
Does his answer affect your estimate of having originally picked 4 Jacks and 2 Queens.
What if his answer was no?
Should you retrospectively revise the probability to 50/50 and beleive it is more likely you picked 3 Jacks and 3 Queens?
Or does the original probability of your selection stand?
Simon
So far, Mathsyperson has come pretty close in his solution to the six card version, so I'll start with that.
It does indeed matter who revealed what. Yes, the odds are 50/50 if the host revealed all four cards. Also if you participated and revealed one of each kind, the odds are still 50/50.
However, if you revealed two of a kind - say Kings - and the host revealed two Queens, then no matter what order they were removed, your card now has a 3/4 probabilty of being a Queen. (If you revealed just one King, and the host removed another King and two Queens, the odds would be 3/5 your card is a Queen.)
With the four card version the answer very simple but quite unbeleivable.
Lets take those two possible games where the same card is revealed.
a) You choose one of four cards. From the remaining three cards a Queen is revealed. You turned it over yourself. There are definitely two Kings and one Queen left. Result? The odds are 1/3 that your card is a Queen. Identical odds apply to the other cards.
Most people agree with the above but dispute the following:
b) You choose one of four cards. From the remaining three cards a Queen is revealed. The only difference is you instructed the host to reveal it. There are two Kings and one Queen left. Result? The odds are 50/50 that your card is a Queen. For each of the other two, the odds are 1/4.
Thanks.
Incidentally, Pi Man also said that the average should be 18 or 19 spins. Not surprisingly, the average is 36. Most people conclude this must be the most likely number of non-zero spins to occur. This is of course the Mean.
Others find themselves tempted by the Median, which is 25 spins. They calculate, correctly, that this is the 50/50 benchmark. If you took a large sample of roulette tables, on half the wheels it will take more than 25 spins to hit Zero. (On the other half it will take less.) This makes "none" sound like an impossible answer.
And yet "none" is the Mode. If probabilty were played out and narrowed down to a single most likely number of spins, you would hit Zero straight away.
If there were 100,000 roulette wheels, and millions of people paid for lottery tickets in which they guessed the six most recurring numbers of spins it took before getting Zero, those few who chose 0,1,2,3,4, and 5 in that order would almost certainly win and share the jackpot!
For the record, I beleive the there are two numbers to eliminate - 67 & 34.
All the rest are divisable - or can be divided by - one or more of the others.
That is my answer too!
If you have to bet on how many spins it'll take before you get Zero, bet on none. The most probable of all outcomes is that a Zero will occur immediately.
It'll be fun to see how many protests we get before one of us justifies this statement.