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Hi cooljackiec,
a) do you know a locus of points that dist 4 from zero?
b) " " " " that dist 3 from y=2?
Yes,but ~ is associative when you only use 0 and n,does that count?
Ok, I thought that {0,n} was {0,1,...,n}
~ is not associative: (x~y)~z!=x~(y~z). For example, take x=5, y=3, z=1. You have:
(5~3)~1 = ||5-3|-1| = 1 != 3 = |5-|3-1|| = 5~(3~1)
so ({0,n} ,~) is not a group, if I understood what you meant.
Maybe we could come up with an argument for pi/2. It is a "right" angle, so it must be right!
However, we observe that the derivative (where it does exist) goes to zero... maybe moving (1) to the hypothesis... Anyway, that was a good example, thank you
uhmm i'm trying to figure out how do you see that f goes to a y0... let's see:
so the c(n) part converges and the x part of course does. Is there a easiest way to see that?
Hi guys, i'm trying to figure out if this is true or not, can you help me?
Conjecture: Let f:[m,+∞)->R be a continuous and monotonous function with a horizontal asymptote y0 (as x->+∞). Then:
1) f is derivable.
2) f'->0 as x->∞.
I ask for f being monotonous because the only counterexamples, to the non-improved conjecture, that came to my mind are things like f(x)=sin(x^2)/x.
Thanks in advance.
Thank you, this remark:
"Peano (1889) observed that if the functions are analytic, then the vanishing of the Wronskian in an interval implies that they are linearly dependent."
opened my eyes
Of course but what i meant was: can I avoid to include W(t0)!=0 for some t0 in my hypotesis? In other words, if I have two linearly independent solutions u and v, can I automatically say W(u,v)!=0 for all t?
Hi guys,
I'm studying some demonstrations about 2nd order differential equations of the form:
y''+2by'+ay=f(t)
where a,b are constants.
Suppose that u,v are linearly independent solutions. Now, in several demonstrations, it's needed that the Wronksian determinant of u,v it's different from zero.
I see from Abel's identity (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abel's_identity) that if this is true for some t0 value, then it's true for all t. Provided this, can I always say that the Wronksian of u,v is always non-zero??
You're welcome.
Hi there! These are very simple and smart proofs. I suggest you also to give a look to:
http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/euclid/Elements.pdf
Book1, Prop.48, Prop.49
the second one (if i remember good) is the Inverse theorem (i.e. if a triangle is such that c²=a²+b², then it's rectangle).
Fistfiz wrote:Hi Bob,
if I may, it seems to me that the (logical) error is deeper:
because
is just a symbol to denote the class of antiderivatives; so, saying class=number makes me think 21122012 is totally missing the meaning of it all.Here a problem here in what:
Calculus doesn't distinguish an arithmetic increment from a geometrical increment! ! !
Calculus - bad science! ! !
I'm sorry, but I really don't find the connection you see beetwen this and the main topic...
However, don't you feel a little ashamed by saying "Calculus - bad science! ! !"??
I may be wrong, because i read your first post and didn't either understand what you're talking about... but, honestly, seems to me (and not only to me, as I see) you don't know what an indefinite integral is.
I had a quick glance and it is very obscure to me; i'll try to read it later, thank you.
Hi Bob,
if I may, it seems to me that the (logical) error is deeper:
because
hi Fistfiz
If you accept the premise that 1 = 0, then you don't need calculus to get 2 = 1 (just add 1 to each side).
Alternatively suspect that 1 isn't 0 after all.
Bob
cool!
seems like:
waaaaa
http://tauday.com/tau-manifesto
To be brief, the "tauists", as they call themselves, argue that the constant pi should be replaced with tau=2*pi, which is much more natural.
I have to say that, to me, the manifesto was really convincing; as i see it, the use of tau instead of pi brings clarity and coherence with other formulas (for example area of a circular sector).
What do you think about it?
is error!
Hi endoftheworld,
I may be wrong, but I think stating that:
∫f(x)dx=F(x)+C
is an error, is itself a (logical) error. Because the indefinite integral is DEFINED AS the solution to the problem:
F'(x)=f(x)
It is the antiderivative, and what you gave is just the definition... does it make any sense to ask if is a definition right or wrong?
Saying that ∫f(x)dx=F(x)+C is an error seems to me like saying that it's wrong to put the ' to indicate the derivative...
I could have totally missed the point, maybe for example your paper says the defining the indefinite integral this way leads to some contradiction; in case i hope you can explain us.
How does this look? :0)
i*180 i*(180/n) i0
(-1)^(1/n) = (1*e )^(1/n) = 1*e so this approaches 1*e = 1 as n goes to infinity.(The angles are in degrees.)
I have to admit that at first sight this looked funny; but after being (maybe) less superficial i'm seeing a meaning behind this:
look it geometrically (i write polar coordinates for complex numbers)...
the (first) square root for -1 is (1,pi/2) (midnight)
the (first) 3rd root for -1 (1,pi/3) (one o'clock)
the (first) 4th root for -1 is (1,pi/4) (half past one)
.....
..... (...some time passes...)
.....
the (first) nth root for -1 tends to (1,0) (almost three o' clock)
so it seems to me that your limit is what the first nth root of (-1) tends to.
EDIT: I want to add something:
where k=0,1,2...,n-1. In particular, the integer part of (n+1)/2 (which is n/2 if n is even and (n+1)/2 if odd) belongs to the list of k's;(where i put n/2 or n+1/2 as k)
so one of us (or eventually both ) must be wrong.
What do you mean by a succession from N to C?
You see that, for example
hi mitu, I would say it does not exist if your succession is from N to R;
here's a short proof of non-existence:
if LIM[a(n)]=L, then for all a(n(k)) LIM[a(n(k))]=L
you see that LIM[a(2k)]!=L since a(2k) is not defined for each k. But maybe someone would argue that for each n in dom(a(n)) a(n)=-1, so LIMa(n)=-1... i see it just as a formal problem, maybe someone can be more precise.
While writing my post i realized that if your succession is from N to C it is not even a function, so i don't know if it has any meaning to talk about limit...
It is just a conjecture that i've made so i'm asking if you can prove it or give a counterexample.
My conjecture :
let A(n) be the square matrix (n+1)x(n+1) with the generic element be
[Link fixed by admin]
then det(A)!=0
I've tested it to n=9...
moreover, det(A) seems to diverge to +inf with n and i've not found a negative value.
hope someone finds this interesting, goodbye!
solved, correct proposition is:
Hi guys,
I have a doubt about a question on my book:
it says:
"let
show that
"...my question is: can you provide an example where
?thank you