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Hi,
I would have thought that as each time a ball is picked you have a 1 in 40 chance ( if the ball is replaced ) then write this down 8 times as a fraction.>>
( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) X ( 1/40 ) =
1 / ( 40 X 40 X 40 X 40 X 40 X 40 X 40 X 40 ) = 1 / 6553600000000
Simple a 1 in 6,553,600,000,000 chance!!
Regards,
Dr M
P.S. In a similar way to get two number 6's with a pair of dice ( 1 /6 ) X ( 1 /6 ) = 1 / 36
or a 1 in 36 chance.
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