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I find 'man in lift' problems take some thinking about. I'd like to chat about the general principles before taking on your problem.
If the lift isn't moving then 10 m/s/s is all there is and the reaction upwards opposes -10 x 90 so 900N up.
But reactions are not always up as the following will hopefully show.
Suppose the lift cable breaks and the lift tumbles down with only gravity acting. The man is now in free fall, effectively weightless and he could float off the floor so the reaction of the floor on him is zero. If we compare with a parachute drop, the wind rush tells us we're falling. In our imaginary lift drop the air moves with the man so he'd have no way of telling that he wasn't able to float.
Now if we imagine a lift that is so powerful it can accelerate downwards at 20 m/s/s. The lift would drop faster than the man because he's already floating up, until he bangs his head on the ceiling. The reaction of the ceiling on him is definitely downwards.
But how much? He is trying to fall at 10 m/s/s but the lift is pushing him at 20. Effectively the force on him is 90 x (20-10) downwards. So you need to subtract the lift's acceleration from gravity to determine the effective acceleration in the frame of reference. It's like the moving train frames of reference. If you 'bring the lift to rest' by applying an upwards acceleration of 2 m/s/s the gravity is similarly given that upwards acceleration so -10 + 2 = -8 m/s/s.
So I think the reaction (upwards) is ( 10 - 2 ) x 90 N
In really fast lifts you will notice the effect as your internal organs rise up inside your body. Many years ago I stayed in the Luxor hotel in Vegas. The hotel is in the shape of a square based pyramid and the lift shafts follow the sloping line so not ony do you notice the stomach effect but also you tend to sway inwards because the motion is no longer just up/down but includes a sideways component. Really strange but then it was Vegas.
Bob
I tried again to research this. Mathsword doesn't list inertia. Wolfram Alpha didn't recognise my question.
I googled "Is inertia the same as mass "
The google AI bot had this to say:
No, inertia is not the same as mass, but mass is a measure of inertia.
Mass is a fundamental property of matter that quantifies the amount of material in an object.
It is measured in kilograms (kg).Inertia is the resistance of an object to changes in its state of motion. An object with more mass has more inertia, meaning it takes more force to change its velocity (speed or direction).
Mass is the measure of an object's inertia. A larger mass means a greater resistance to changes in motion, which is the essence of inertia.
Generative AI is experimental.
I then tried "does inertia depend on velocity"
Inertia, which is an object's resistance to changes in its state of motion, does not depend on velocity. Inertia is a property of an object determined solely by its mass. While velocity does play a role in how an object resists changes in motion through momentum, inertia itself is independent of how fast an object is moving.
Bob
increasing velocity alters that tendency,
Wrong! It doesn't. The bot is confusing actual velocity with how much we want to alter the velocity. It takes more effort if we want to alter velocity a lot, but Newton's law just says velocity stays constant until we apply an external force. The amount of force determines how much the velocity changes but the start velocity is irrelevant. That's why we have frames of reference; otherwise we've got to take account of all the possible velocities (orbits, movement of galaxies etc.)
It takes the same force to change velocity from say 10 m/s to 5 m/s whether the start velocity is 10 m/s or 10 million m/s.
Conclusion: Don't trust bots to tell you anything.
Bob
hi ktesla39
Using the email you registered with, my PA, Matty, has sent you a message. Did you spot it?
Bob
hi polarisgleam
Welcome to the forum.
If you look back through this thread you'll see that it's not just a case of adding 13. That's too easy for this forum. Members try to find a calculation (the more interesting, the better) to make the next number.
Such as 2 x 2 x 7 x 13 x 83 = 30212.
Bob
Yes, that looks good.
B
It has to be like that because of all the other motions that we're all involved in. eg. the Earth is hurtling through space (could estimate the speed but hopefully my point stands without that). If you had to stop that speed too you'd need a lot of force just to take the dog for a walk!
Bob
So write out this expansion for n = 1 n=2 ... n and sum them
The two cube sums have most terms in common so these can be cancelled. Also substitute the formula for the sum of n numbers
times by 2 to remove the fraction and expand the terms
Rearrange to make 6 times the required sum come onto the LHS and simplify the RHS
so the formula is:
Bob
There is a formula for the sum of n terms. The sum to infinity will be infinite so the formula for that is
Do you know the finite sum formula? Would you like me to derive it?
Bob
No. In that frame it is stopped so no force is needed.
Bob
I did! That looks very good. I cannot install code; only MIF can do that. Try emailing him at funmath@gmail.com
Bob
I rarely try to memorise thngs. Sometimes they stick through repetition.
Bob
That's exactly what I meant.
Bob
Please would you post the original assignment
Bob
I've made up some constraints to illustrate what I mean.
I'll define a large order as amount > 600
Medium as 250< amount < 600 including these endpoints
And small as amount < 250
If everything were to be reduced in the same proportion
then k = target amount / actual amount
But we want k for small to be 1, k for large to be sufficient to reach a total of 3000 and k for medium to be less than k for large.
I'll make k for medium to be 60 % of k for large.
This gives me a way to calculate k for large
The total for new large plus new medium is 3000 -200-50
So L.k + M - M(1-k)x0.6 = 2750
Rearranging k = (2750 - 0.4 x 500)/(4400 + 0.6x500)
= 0.54255...
Using this the new values are
1898, 488, 362, 200, 50 giving a total of 2998.
This is because I've rounded every calculation down.
So apply WHILE total < 3000 medium = old medium + 1 so this loops until 3000 is reached.
Bob
What's missing is an exact definition of large medium and small. Then a rule for medium reduction, say 60% of the large reduction.
I doubt C would have a specific routine for this as its too unusual. But a suitable formula could be made. I'd need the answers to the above questions
Bob
Oh yes,certainly. I just used those as examples. There's no limit to the number of possible frames.
Bob
I googled it. bbcode is a subset of HTML used by forums
The code is passed to the browser to be implemented as HTML.
Used by forums for simplicity and to keep out malicious code.
Bob
Have I told you where to look for a long list of these?
Go to help and you'll find it in the third thread.
The thread existed long before I joined but it was hidden. I stumbled on it one day and copied it into the post in help.me
The whereabouts of the original is a mystery but I've added to my version so that's the place to go.
Do I know them all? Certainly not! I don't fill my head with stuff like that
No idea why they are given those names. Someone thought it was a good name I guess.
Bob
There are many questions I would want to ask before tackling this problem.
Such as "What happens if the order total is already less than 3000?"
"If we classify the order items as large order medium order and small order then what is the largest value that makes a small , what is the smallest value that makes a large and hence we know the range for medium?"
"What if a type is out of stock?"
I'll assume the 5 types are already in ascending order of size. If not you need to perform a sort routine to get them in order
Let's call the five numbers c1, c2, c3, c4, and c5.
The final values will be d1, d2, d3, d4 and d5
.
By your rules d4 = c4 and d5 = c5.
To reduce c3 by a small amount use the formula
d3 = c3 x (3000 - d4 - d5) x 1.5 /(c1 + c2 + c3)
1.5 here was an arbitrary choice that works for these values.
It would be better if the amount to reduce was given more precisely.
With your values that makes 420 after rounding down.
d3 + d4 + d5 = 670 so c1 + c2 must be reduced to 2330
d1 = c1 x 2330/4900 and d2 = c2 x 2330/4900
4900 here is the current total and 2330 is the target total.
Those values come to1853 and 476 after rounding down.
The grand total is 2990 because of the rounding so you need a line that says while total < 3000 add 1 to d3.
Bob
Italics means sloping
Emphasis means bold
Monster? Nay! Admin have super powers to disintegrate unwanted characters. And a character has two meanings; both of which are vulnerable.
B
Yes that's about it. Or you could think of it like this.
Divide is the inverse of multiply. Turning a fraction up the other way inverts it. By doing both you maintain the "purpose" of the calculation .
Bob
Latex commands are 'called' by inserting them between the opening and closing command math
It used to be possible to suppress the action be using another bbcode command, code, but it seems to no longer work, probably happened when the forum switched to a new server. So I'll leave off the first open bracket and the last close bracket to avoid the code interpreter trying to action the code. Then I'll repeat but with all the brackets, so you can see what the command does.
math] commands here [/math
So to make a simple fraction
math] \frac{3}{4} [/math
Here's an integral
math] \int_0^\infty x^{x+2} + \alpha x .dx [/math
Years ago the member Dross wrote a tutorial to get people started https://www.mathisfunforum.com/viewtopic.php?id=4397
and others added to the thread. I find the code commands are blacked out now and some other commands no longer work but there's still a lot of useful stuff here. I go there if I want something I haven't used before eg. the infinity in the line above.
You can also do an internet search for the right command but this can be frustrating as not all are implemented here.
^ for to the power of works simply if followed by a single character eg
math] x^7 [/math
but if you want a more complicated power the power must be enclosed in {}
math] x^{y + 7} [/math
Otherwise this happens
If you see some Latex and want to see the underlying commands just click on it.
Hope that gets you started.
Bob
To divide by a fraction, invert it and multiply.
Do you know why this works? **
**
Multiply top and bottom by d/c
bbcode: Get started here: https://www.mathisfunforum.com/viewtopic.php?id=4397
If you click on any part of the above you will see the underlying code.
It looks complicated because of the nested fractions. The command for a fraction is \frac{numerator}{denominator}
I often get in a muddle with the number of {{{ }}}.
What is not shown by that is that each line starts square bracket math and ends square bracket /math
Bob
Usually I can answer your questions based on what I was taught and passed on in my own teaching. This one is the exception. In all the Newtonian mechanics and physics questions I have encountered, inertia has never occurred.
I had to go up in my loft and get down all my old texts on applied maths and physics. Some just refer to Newton and basically say bodies possess the property of inertia, that is they do not accelerate unless acted upon by an external force.
I also tried googling the units for inertia. I got two answers:
Mass is a measure of an object's inertia. The more mass an object has, the more inertia it has.
The SI unit for inertia is kilogram-meter squared (kg⋅m²). While the term "inertia" is often used to refer to an object's resistance to changes in motion, the actual concept of resistance to change is often referred to as moment of inertia. The moment of inertia is a measure of how an object resists rotational acceleration.
The first is inertia as it applies to linear motion and the second to rotating objects.
The measure of linear kinetic energy is 1/5 . m . v^2 and for rotating objects 1/2 . I / w^2 where I is the moment of inertia and w the angular velocity.
We're not the only ones confused. Have a look at this thread :
https://physics.stackexchange.com/quest … n-stopping
So there we are. Everyone is confused and there's no one answer.
LATER EDIT: I've given this some over-night thought. For an object with zero or uniform velocity it's inertia is because of its mass. More mass, more inertia. It's actual velocity is irrelevant. The Earth rotates on its axis, and around the Sun, which in turn, rotates around the centre of the Galaxy, which is moving relative to other galaxies. That's why we have the concept of frames of reference.
If you consider that trolley going at various speeds, then, yes, the amount of force to reduce that velocity to zero will vary, but that doesn't alter its inertia. It just gives you the means to do the calculation. If you set up a frame of reference that travels at 6 m/s in the second case, then the trolley is only travelling at 6 m/s relative to that frame and so can be 'brought to rest' in the frame with the same effort as the first case.
Momentum gives you a way to measure the force required, but I showed in a previous post that impulse is just a way of applying v = u + at to determine F.
Bob