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Hi Reconsideryouranswer,
If you are referring to my last post, a is a real number. As in as x is approaching some real number a, f(x) approaches L, some other real number (or the limit).
Hi gAr and hi Bobbym, indeed it is!
This is using the δ-ϵ (delta-epsilon) definition to prove limits. Then there is the N-ϵ method to prove limits which involve infinity.
So for the δ-ϵ method, it is basically saying the following: if we have lim of x -> a f(x) = L. For all x, if 0 < |x-a| < δ (we choose this δ), then |f(x) - L| < ϵ.
We take ϵ > 0 to be arbitrary and then prove the implication (the then statement). If the proof is successful, then the limit has been proven. The N-ϵ is similar but a bit different. Here is the Wikipedia article on them (I'm surprised you guys have never come across this, perhaps it isn't used much outside of low-level Calculus): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%28%CE%B5,_%CE%B4%29-definition_of_limit
Hi again,
With much aid from someone else online, I was able to get the following solution for Q4. Does it look about right?
http://i52.tinypic.com/9itu6p.jpg
Ooh, it's been quite a while since I've been here. I'd stay around more if I had much to contribute.
Anyway, hello everyone. I had some questions that I needed some help with. There are 5 of them and I've completed all but the 4th one. But I'd like confirmation for my solution for #1 and #5.
Here are the questions: http://i56.tinypic.com/30nb1xf.png
Question 1 solution: http://i52.tinypic.com/2hfht83.jpg
Question 5 solution: http://i56.tinypic.com/2jdhlzl.jpg
Question 4 beginning: http://i53.tinypic.com/15dvs6w.jpg
Number 2 and 3 I am confident in. If anyone could look over the work that I've done with the 1st and 5th questions and provide some guidance on question 4, I'd be very thankful.
Whush, that was a large informative read. I think I understand it now. As a span is all of the linear combinations of the vectors, one vector (y in our case) must form a linear combination with the other vectors in order to be a part of the span, right?
And I think we'll probably be jumping to that soon in class but until then, I'm gonna keep on doing some practice questions until I get a hang of this stuff.
Thanks for your help, Bob.
Thanks for the reply Bob. I ended up getting a = 5. Is that the one and only solution to the problem?
And also, why did we want to make y a linear combination of the other three vectors?
I'm gonna try again with the span:
[-r + 5s - 3t, -r - 4s + t, -2r - 7s] = {[x1, x2, x3] where x1, x2, x3 are real numbers} E R^3
x1 = -r + 5s -3t
x2 = x1 - 2r - 9s + 4t
x3 = x1 - 3r - 12s
Let x1 = 2.
We want x2 to be equal to zero (I saw something like this in class but I'm sure I'm doing it wrong lol).
0 = x2 = x1 - 2r - 9s + 4t (make r = 0, s = 0, t = - 1/2 to satisfy x2 = 0)
0 = x2 = 2 - 2
x3 = x1 - 3r - 12s (r = 0 and s = 0 from above)
x3 = 2 - 0 = 2
So the span of the vectors is [2, 0, 2]. That's so off, this is embarrassing but I had to give it a shot.
I was having some trouble understanding the whole "span" of vectors concept. I understand that it's the set of all linear combinations for a number of vectors (the definition) but I'm having trouble interpreting it.
Here is one of the examples we were given at the start of the lecture:
For what value(s) of "a" will y be in sp(v1, v2, v3) if v1 = [1, -1, -2], v2 = [5, -4, -7], v3 = [-3, 1, 0] and y = [-4, 3, a]?
I've tried to do some work:
The span of three first vectors is as follows -
r * v1 + s * v2 + t * v3 = [-r + 5s - 3t, -r - 4s + t, -2r - 7s] = sp(v1, v2, v3)
Now to see if y is in the span. I'm not sure how to find that, am I supposed to use the dot product? I don't think so because we covered that later on.
Thank you.
Edit: On second thought, I think my span is incorrect too. :\
Proof by induction works in two stages.
First you prove the base case. In this case that's h=1, and you've done that.
Next you assume it's true for h=n, and use that to prove that it's true for h=n+1.
You've managed to get that 11^(n+1) - 4^(n+1) = 7*11^n + 4(11^h - 4^h).
The first term on the right is clearly divisible by 7, and by the inductive assumption, the second term also is. Therefore the whole right hand side is divisible by 7 and you're done. [True for h=n] implies [True for h=n+1].
Oh, that makes it very clear indeed. I didn't know that was the case.
Thanks for the explanation and walk-through, Mathsyperson.
I thought about subbing in 1 = h as it's no longer h+1 which gives 105 and it divides evenly by 7. However, that would just be like testing h = 2 from the very start, which is not how a proof should go (I think).
Edit: This website did it in the same way that I did and they have the solution: http://mathcentral.uregina.ca/QQ/database/QQ.09.99/pax1.html at the bottom.
However, I fail to understand the portion about the assumption.
Hi there! Well after a few years of high school and now onto my second semester in university, I'm taking Calc II that involves lots of proofs.
This week we were given a problem sheet with some proofs to prove.
Here is one I needed some aid with:
Prove that
is divisible by 7 for all h >= 1.Here's what I've done thus far and I figured induction would be the best way to go:
for h = 1:
for n = h + 1
And I'm stuck at that. Any hints anyone? Thanks in advance!
That is probably it but that would mean he is suggesting precisely what we suggested: a number between 0 and 1. I guess we're all right.
No prob, Bobby!
And Sameer, what does it mean by saying {.}?
Just an update, the TA said something practically along the lines of what you mentioned, Bobby.
Keep the A value on the side that it is on. Solve the inequality of A > 0. Then we solve the WHOLE inequality by isolating A. If B is between 0 and 1, then we simply switch the inequality sign, if not, we leave the sign as it is. Once that inequality is solved, we look at the inequality we solved earlier (A > 0) and conjure a solution by using methods such as a number line or whatever.
Those were her words, which seems quite on par with what you said I think.
Thank you!
Alright then. Thank you for all the help Bobby. Even if it may not be as clear as possible (as you put it), it still made sense and cleared up the problem for me.
I'll ask my TA sometime this week and post the answer.
Repost as my edit was too late: I did not notice your edit. So to reiterate, if C is an element of all real numbers and the log of the base is less than 0, then 0 < a < b^c. But if the log of the base is greater than 0, then a > b^c. Did I understand that correctly?
In essence the log of a base that is between 0 and 1 is always negative and if it is greater than 1, it is positive so the part about 0 < b < 1 and b>1 does stand true, correct?
Oops, I meant to say if 0<b<1, not x.
As for 0 < a < b^c, I tried out some examples and it does seem to check out. If I use it when b is equal to 3 or something, it does not work so that means it is right in that aspect (that is works for 0 < b < 1).
Just for confirmation, are you entirely certain that the second part is accurate or are you just testing me to see if I'm actually thinking about this problem? Haha.
That's a good way of understanding it. Would you say that the following generalizations are correct?
logb a > c [assuming that the log part is on the left]
then we keep the a on the left side and get:
a > b^c
If b is 0<x<1:
then we switch the sign and get
a < b^c
Bobby, could you elaborate a bit with how that affects the inequalities?
However with the inequalities, that does not work.
Sorry Bobby, I was making a few edits there (taking out some of the stuff that I was able to get).
From what part of the solution did you get the 2^x < 1? The last part with the -2 < 2^x < 1? If so, I was able to understand how to get that part by splitting the inequality into two and solving.
However, the other question remains.
Here is my understanding of the log inequalities with some curiosities:
Sorry, my HS teacher never went through this stuff for some odd reason but I won't let that stop me!
So for some reason, my high school had never gone over this and during the review for Calculus in university, a question came up that I could not solve. Everything seems very straight-forward but not this. Any tips?
For instance, I found this question on Yahoo Answers with a solution but the steps were a bit confusing as it was written using * and ^, etc rather than LaTeX or such. Here is my attempt at the solution:
Thanks for having a look!
Edit: I was able to get the solution by rereading what the Yahoo Answers poster wrote.
My TA was mentioning something about reversing the signs when the base of the logarithmic function is 0<x<1, sort of like how you do so when multiplying both sides by a negative number. What is that all about?
It happens. G'night for now.