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oooohhh i get it now.. thank you! what are the chances of me learning that next year do you think? (AS level)
Didn't you just learn it?
Don't rely on A-level teaching, read ahead, and your "chances" of learning something are certain, because you can do it yourself.
It is secure if Numbers are mixed with letters etc. for Passwords etc......................................
You have no idea what they're talking about.
On topic, I don't think it's that much of a threat, considering that the last mersenne prime found was 2^32,582,657 -1 (just under ten million digits), so modular combination of sufficiently large primes should make decryption pretty much impossible. Suppose you take smaller ones and aim for a modular combination of a million digits, that's a one meg key (if my theory is wrong, shoot me down), which will be tame by tomorrow's bandwidth standards.
I don't think we're in trouble for the moment.
Children counted with their Fingers! long before any known named counting system!..........
Just the children?
(By the way, you just reiterated exactly what I just said, minus the part about the children)
THE PROBLEM IS! FOR SOMETHING TO HAVE A 100% PROOF! IT HAS TO BE PROVED!!................
We all know the Sequence 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9.....etc... but We cant prove what the Last Number is!?
All Infinite Math problems have the same Problem!!....................................................................
A.R.B
No, they don't, at all, you're making things up. There IS not last number, but properties can apply for each and every number up to infinity if the property is induced.
Just read the induction page and stop typing in caps, and stop partitioning your sentences with exclamation marks.
Ok, let's keep it pointed. He says the following:
"(it is not possible to have a 100% Proof for Any Infinite Math Problem!)"
Which isn't true, by the simple concept of
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_induction
Any quarrels?
I have to Humour the less able minded! if they cant see in front of their own Nose!...........
I have to partition! My sentences! With exclamation! Marks!
my degree! is always lower than other's but then I just like being Cool..............................
Oh, becuase that makes so much sense.
all we need to see is the Math on how from 0.999...(.9) to (1) is done!
it can only be done by + (.1) which as we all know! is no longer Infinite/Recurring!!..................
No.
Hey Anthony, can I see your degree?
I also heard of someone who done this 14 million times! in one week!!....................................
It can't be done, and if it had been, it will be documented somewhere, so link or it didn't happen.
You're full of it.
Every rational number has two decimal expansions, induced by the metric on the real numbers.
Every terminating decimal has two decimal expansions. But how is this induced by the metric on the real numbers (absolute value)?
Absolute value of a number would be the metric of that number with zero, the metric d(1,0.9...) = 0 which follows pretty soon after the axioms.
To mathsyperson
Quote: "I think the main reason that people play the lottery is that £1 per week is a very small spend for someone who has a reasonable salary, so they hardly notice that it's not there and it's not a huge loss for them. However, they certainly would notice if they suddenly became a multi-millionnaire."
A.R.B
I heard of someone who done this 14 million times! they could have saved the Money! equivalent to winning the Lottery
You know somebody who is two-hundred-and-seventy thousand years old?
What puzzles me is how other Counting systems came about! Humans are Born with Ten fingers!
you would have thought this would have been the first counting System!A.R.B
It was, sexagesimal wasn't in recorded use until 2000BC, and even sexagesimal is a mixed radix system of decimal and heximal.
Nothing changes the fact that Infinite 1.111.... x 0.9 will Never equal 1
Of course not, apart from the fact that it clearly does to anybody with a shred of sense and you've seen it proved a million times over, but other than that, of course not.
because there are so many wrong Answers given to one Question?
You'd know all about that
(it is not possible to have a 100% Proof for Any Infinite Math Problem!)
Stop making things up
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_induction
To mathsyperson
The above Quote of yours! is the Biggest Mistake-Quote you will ever Make!!.............................
Stop trolling, everybody is sick of seeing you try to controvert fact. Maybe if you stopped believing you're somehow more enlightened than people who have been studying science their entire life you would actually learn something.
I know you may know me already, but here's my hobbies: Volleyball, Origami and Astronomy.
All at the same time?
Is that list the list of the number of subgroups?
I don't get it, what about groups that are direct products of groups, do they still have the same number of subgroups?
You could also try to simply create subsets of order d, where d | n, n being the order of your group. Then test for closure, again by cayley table. Each cayley table can be made in polynomial time, so the run time is entirely dependent on sigma(n), which of course is linear.
Gah, cartesian product, that's me being tired, I meant to say power set.
I'm gonna have a bash at trying to find subsets based on their order being a divisor, but I still think I'm going to end up with way too many to check.
Can anyone help in suggesting a low cost algorithm for finding all subgroups of a given group? and before anybody makes the joke, yes I was stupid enough to try the cartesian product and then first filter out by order, one hundred and thirty million subsets later my computer broke. So what tips and tricks can I use to find all subgroups without testing individually, and there is no guarantee that I can attribute any properties (normality, simplicity, cyclicity) to the group.
IF there's no possible method then is it possible to do given a specific property of the group? But I would love a method for all possible groups, but I doubt that's feasible. Can this be done in polynomial time?
Maybe it's just late but I'm having trouble reading the java, not that I even know java...
Don't stress over pseudocode, a description of the algorithm should be enough, if you could explain how it's done I should be able to implement it.
I'm having problems coming up with an algorithm to produce the power set of a given finite set, I think I'm starting to see why power set is an axiom, I'm guessing it can be done recursively but I'm having trouble figuring it out on paper, any pointers or pseudocode? I'm coding in standard OOP.
because the exponential function acts as an isomorphism between additive and multiplicative groups
#3.
EDIT: Making proof a bit simpler
Ill work on #4 and #7 later.
Ok, for the third line, how does that imply that it is proper, couldn't a theoretically generate the entire group?
and for line four, why does a^m^n = e?
http://www.maths.leeds.ac.uk/~marsh/MAT … 607/q4.pdf
I'm struggling with qs 3,4 and 7 on this sheet, any pointers?