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George,Y wrote:Ricky wrote:Infinity isn't part of the real numbers, yet you always try to include it as so. Why?
Because you said infinite number of 9's, haven't you?????
Stating that there are an infinite number of 9's does not include infinity as a real number. It just means the sequence of 9's is not finite in number.
However, trying to multiply and divide by infinity does.
Great! This is what I have been waiting for, Ricky. And without explicitly using the concept of infinity I still can figure out the dilema.
Not finite in number? This stating is a step from perfect defination- Let us define it as not only nonfinite in number but also LARGER than any number, and it has to be so otherwise 9's less than any finite 9's obviously cannot defeat sufficient 9's after the digit point begining the interval [x,1]. And it is nothing wrong to name the quantity of 9's as a superquantity q that has the property q>N, in which N is any integer, is it?
However, what does the 9 after q-1 9's represent? You won't say this is invalid, will you? For if it is, not finite 9's is even not possible or feasible. Back to the topic, this 9 represents a quantity 1/10[sup]q[/sup] because it is situated as the qth digit from the digit point. You wouldn't say it does not represent so, would you? (If you would, please tell me what does it represent- a 0 is only fine.)
And this 1/10[sup]q[/sup] is conceivably less than any positive rationals(Why I use ratioanals instead of quantities will be illustrated later. However quantities will equally function here). For any rational α, there will be at least one N to insure that 1/10[sup]N[/sup]<α. Hence 1/10[sup]q[/sup] would be less than α too. What? You want to say that it isn't- do you want to state that this 9 represents sth larger than some 9 before it? Thereby it still represents a quantitiless. (It is only fine if you name quantitiless, instead, 0)
The same dilema again, you can forbid the expression of q/1,000,000,000, but you will still be unable to figure out from where 9's start to represent quantitilesses.
By the way, just by stating infinity is not finity doesn't solve any problem. Logically infinity and finity are completementory and together exhaustive. Stating "not finite" is the same as stating some "quantity" "infinite", as I abbreviated as q(you can use any other symbol but that would change nothing essential).
Further, if you deny this, you have an attitude problem I am afraid to say. Not to me, though, but to the concept of "infinite 9's" you've employed. In the "proof" on post 76, you employed this guy to outweigh any finite 9's after the digit point that starts the intervals like [0.9,1], [0.99,1], [0.999,1] etc. But now when you face the dilema created by it, you fire it, and depose of it . If you haven't got it, reread from Paragraph 2.
What do you mean interpret? It is a 0. and then an infinite number of 9's after it..
-It is you who wrote nonsense.
Well, now what does the 9 on Digit Infinite, or the Infiniteth digit stand for?
This question has no meaning. I might as well attempt to name the continents on the moon.
What do you mean interpret? It is a 0. and then an infinite number of 9's after it..
Infinity isn't part of the real numbers, yet you always try to include it as so. Why?
Because you said infinite number of 9's, haven't you?????
In brief, how do you interpret blablabla in 0.999..., particularly in Post 76?
What do you mean interpret? It is a 0. and then an infinite number of 9's after it.
Please point out an error in my post #76.
It is a 0. and then an infinite number of 9's after it.
So you have interpreted 0.999...
Here, you have used infinite 9s , and it wouldn't be appropriate for me to further it by there are infinite digits after the digit point, would it?
Well, now what does the 9 on Digit Infinite, or the Infiniteth digit stand for?
Does it stand for nonsense?
No
Does it stand for any finite quantity?
No
Does it stand for a 0, or an infinitesimal or a quantitiless?
Yes, reasonably. Because literally it stands for
Now, let's say it is 0 because you once said so.
The digit prior to it represents also 0. When it does not, the digit after it will represent one tenth of it.
The digit N digits prior to the Infiniteth digit is 0, too, no matter how large the N is.
Let us see what the 1/2∞th digit stands for. It must be 0, because if it is any x>0, Digit ∞ will stand for sth in the x^2 scale.
So it is ok to say that Digit
represents still 0.Hence what does 0.999... mean now?
From left, each 9 stands for a positive quatity, no matter how small but not equal to 0, from the right, or from middle-anywhere after ∞-1 9s, each 9 stands for 0, please do tell me when 9 starts to represent 0?
Let us say 0 instead of quasi-zero or quantitiless to describe 9/10∞, which is embeded in you summation on Post 89. That is just fine, and which entry becomes 0? Can you name one? If you admit the ∞ symbol in the summation in Post 89 cannot substitute n in bn, you mean the summation may never be completed, hence you deny the all-added-up proposal and category 0.999... as a GROWING variable.
None of them are 0. Do you understand what is meant by a limit? Do you understand how a limit can converge to a real number? And finally, do you understand why when we can get arbitrarily close to a real number, we consider that the same as being at that real number?
From the above quote, it seems as if you understand none of these.
Uhah! It is the quite common trick that one who failed to refute can employ- he or she will just state that his/her stand is among the "advanced", or "higher" knowledge the challenger hasn't aquired. But we are too familiar with this trick, Ricky, since we've been coaxed in this way ever since elementary school.("We" refers to everyone of us, who have been told something like" In real numbers, this wouldn't be a problem".)
I said I would deal with the Reals later, but I don't want to do it now cuz I need no further idea to disprove you:
533+1/3 at most
I proved 533+1/3 is the most in my home forum. But I lack time to translate it into English currently.
Stangely enough, someone did say 567 could be an answer at that time.
Uh-hahh! I didn't say that today is caused by yesterday. Instead, I said anything constant defies coincidence.
Quatum mechanics is so popular only because it is the mere case that defy causality.
Quantum mechanics is popular because it is a testable science which has shown to produce positive results not only in furthering theories of physics, but also in developing technologies.
Sorry, but I meant in this topic people like to site quantum machanics to disprove causality, and ignored the larger part in our world in accordance with causality.
Dross refuted my proof that the infiniteth 9 is unreachable by stating sth like" imagine you add all of them together". So long as he had said the "all", I found it appropriate and necessary to imagine the end in the "all" as well, which was a temp concilatory and did not mean I gave up my stand.
First, Ricky, I would like to appreciate you for post 89, the post that express the defination explicitly.
Second, my post from 72 to 74 is mostly targetted at Dross's proposition "Imagine you add them all together". This opposition will remain strong if revised a little bit.
Let us say 0 instead of quasi-zero or quantitiless to describe 9/10[sup]∞[/sup], which is embeded in you summation on Post 89. That is just fine, and which entry becomes 0? Can you name one? If you admit the ∞ symbol in the summation in Post 89 cannot substitute n in bn, you mean the summation may never be completed, hence you deny the all-added-up proposal and category 0.999... as a GROWING variable.
A variable cannot be a number. You are too familiar with numbers to let a variable be one of them, aren't you?
In brief, how do you interpret blablabla in 0.999..., particularly in Post 76?
Quatum mechanics is so popular only because it is the mere case that defy causality. The nuclear more or less obeies the causality and stay more or less the same at where it were.
I have denied 0.999... -how can I not disprove your proof on Post 76?
and on Post 74 I just pointed out the fallacy of 0.999... because the last 9, or the 9 after infinite digits. Note my disproof is not targeted at 0.9+0.09+0.009+... alone but on the structure of 0.999... also, since the later can be directly decomponented to the former.
The defination:
"No, this definition" on Post 83
Archimedian principle and completeness- I will challenge this principle quite soon. Sorry I haven't aquired the knowledge of interval proof, but they should be collarabotively false with Archimedian principle equalavent to Reals completeness.
Sure-reals and other similar proofsinvolves a infinity concept. And the most of proofs wiki provided have been refuted in this thread and the other one discussing the same topic. Also, the page has some false proofs like using a calculator to fool elementary students. Do I need to respond to this kind of proofs? I would be too torlarant if I do so when you haven't asked.
Would you be kind enough to verify the defination you have mentioned- is the defination to denote a sum of infinite entries as the limit of a sum of Finite entries?
Finite logic is addition, substraction, multiplication, division, mathematical deduction and Cauchy's defination of limit(e-N or Delta system), particularly when used in trying to prove 0.999... equates 1, or to prove 0.111...=1/9.
Can either of you prove either of the equities using those method? But keeping in mind: Don't make a defination whenever you Fail to prove.
On Ricky's words in Post 80, you haven't explicitly pointed out HOW I will tear the base of Calculus down-or put in other words, you haven't supported your assertion, so in no way I can refute or reply you. But don't think in this way you are right because you have not prove the assertion yet.
First to Dross, I am sorry to mistaken your stand as Ricky's. I apologize.
But in regard of your limit proof promoted in Pst 26, you, Ricky and I discussed it thoroughly from Post 51 to Post 61. And Ricky actually denied a limit proof in Post 59, and said it requires a defination. Further in Post 61, he admitted that the defination replaces the proof needed to fill in the gap from closing in limit framework to the purpose to prove 0.999... equals 1.
Since so far you haven't refuted him, I supposed that you agreedwith him.
About"in real system any number has a infinite expansion", I want to clarify that reals are defined as infinite sets, for which you can consult Georg Cantor's definatio of reals, read Russels opposition to it and the Barber's story, or consult the wiki page you provided, saying 1 is defined as all the rationals before it-notice all the rationals implies infinite amount of them, and thereby I exclude Reals from finite.
To Ricky, I will challenge the Reals later, which is also infinte based.
Then comes the more convincing argument: that the last 9 is quantitiless, infinitesimal that equals to 0, or quasi-0.
It, however, is also doubtful. The basic doubt is that when and how it is gotten? Zeno used to question the quantitiless concept by analyzing a moving arrow:
The arrow should reach the mid point before reaching the end, but should also reach the quater point before reaching the mid point,... Each step is finite, and it seems no hope to get an infintesimal or a quantitiless by reducing the quantity, in number.
Still, let us say somehow the quantitiless or the infinitesimal is reached, then how about add the sum up this way? -From the last, backwards.
the last 9 is quantitiless, the second last one is also quantitiless, the N last one is too.
Going further, we can say that the half-infiniteth 9 is quantitiless- It has to be otherwise the last 9 is not. (think of any digit number then double the collective 0s after the digit point)
Even Entry 1/1,000,000,000 of infinity should be a quantitiless.
And when does the entry turn out to be a quantity from a quantitiless? Which entry?
This is the reverse question of when quantities come to a quantitless state.
Altogether, can anyone distinguish which entry separate the quantities on the left and the quantitiless on the right? Or, can anyone illustrate how the quantities grow to the quantitiless gradually?
To be continued...
First of all, let us see what need not be proven. 1-0.9=0.1, and 1-0.99=0.01 for sure. And everyone knows the entry or the sum will get closer and closer to 1 so long as the number of digits in the entry of {0.9, 0.99, 0.999,...} get bigger and bigger, or as more and more entries being added in 0.9+0.09+0.009+.... It's foolproof that it "grows" to 1 but so far in any finite step it is still not close enough to reach 1.
So is there a somewhere where it finally, utimately reaches 1? -"When the series comes to the infinitth entry or the summation has infinite entries", some mathematicians would reply. Such guess seems by no means to be wild, but by developing it logically, one could easily discover its discontents.
The first one is the famous and smart proof using 10 multiplier:
10×0.999...=9.999...
0.999...=0.999...
\9×0.999...=9
Nice substraction! But one thing is puzzling - 0.999... has infinite 9 s, and multiplied by 10 doesn't change the amount of 9s by algebraic rules, if any in infinite state. Hence how does the substraction deal with the last 9? Is it substracted as well?
Some one would argue that infinity is docile, and the 9.999... naturally grows one digit to substract the last 9 in 0.999.... It sounds of some sense, but what if this proof:
100×0.999...=9.999...
0.999...=0.999...
\99×0.999...=99
Infinity is indeed "docile" -previously infinity+1=infinity, and now infinity+2=infinity. But one thing we should pay attention is that the amount of digits now begin to grow or vary now, hence whether the infinite numbers is a final state is doubtful- how can a final something begin to change again? And if 0.999... with infinite 9s is 1, what are 0.999... with 1, 2, or 10, 1000 more than infinite 9s?
Until now in this topic, having debated so long, Ricky, Dross and I all admit that:
1) 0.999...=0.9+0.09+0.009+...;
2) Either 0.999...=1 or 0.111...=1/9 cannot be proven by any finite logic, and either a defination or an imagination is needed.
And Dross insists the imagination or intuition method, while Ricky favors a defination he thinks useful and essential. I, certainly, deny both.
One day, Dross found a long passage written by a professor on wikipedia, which tries to prove 0.999...=1. Since it looked a big deal and I lacked time, I asked for a pause and promised to challange the 0.999...=1 thing later.
Now it's been too long for a pause, thus I complete the challenge below.
Here is a counterexample:
Most of things exist today the way they existed yesterday- if there is no causality, how can this happen rather than randomly occur?
The constant itself is cause-effect. The later status copies the previous one, rather than randomly occurs. And this is neither coincidence nor could pass the statistically insignificance test.
Since most of things remain virtually constant and we humans have found a lot of sound explainations for the exceptions, or changes, it is fair to say most of the world behaves in cause and effect.
Forever young......
-A song by an English female singer
suppose each combination of two students from the 18 share the same probability.
Since the number of the combinations is binominial(18,2), the probability for each one should equally be 1/binominial(18,2).
The number of ways of selecting 2 Chinese is binomial(7,2), and each way has 1/binominial(18,2) chance to appear in the random selecting 2 out of 18 process. Hence the total chance (added together) should be:
binomial(7,2) ×1/binominial(18,2)=binomial(7,2) /binominial(18,2)
You are welcome
Forget about that. Just draw a line starting from R and parallel to QV, then just name the intersections whatever you like.