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The defination you've provided is not about a series but about a function.Thank you for this defination, for it does not contradict my argument.
then do you want to conclude that-
I doubt if you've find a book with this conclusion, and your replacement of N by x does not garantee the difference being eliminated to 0.
dy/dx is tangent slope, so you can find some time when 1+x-2y is zero while 2x-2-y not.
A turning point also satisfies a condition that defferientials have opposite signs between on the left and on the right.
So that the slopes are like this /-\ or like this \-/
x^2-y^2=0 => (x+y)(x-y)=0 => x=y or x=-y
Ricky, sorry I miss the formula in latex and the defination. But you know people like you within the system have tons of capacity to make definations or rules.
So I need to disprove the defination of 0.999... promoted in post #51, all right.
But first allow me to distinguish some common mistake among some, though not all, young mathematicians. The point is that a ∞ simbol does not necessarily mean a infinity in practice.
For example, 0/0 and ∞/∞ problems. In fact they are not, 0/0 has no defination, so does ∞/∞.
0 should stand for an infinitesimal- a shrinking variable, as well as ∞ should represent a growing variable. And some textbooks express them with quotation marks.
Another instance might be when you say f(x) goes to infinity as x goes to infinity, you mean f(x) diverges.
∞ in the expression " limit(n->∞) An" does not mean real infinity, the reached state by its clear defination in the majority of textbooks, which can only provide a finite N-epsilon proof.
So if you interpret the infinity under a limit symbol as real, you've already make a closer-reaching imaginary leap.
Great!
Why? Involving imperfect competition, Game theory perhaps is the only way out.
Unlucky as usual.
Hey, I come up with an idea:
Just use two pairs of convenient numbers both larger or both smaller than them and multiply.
If the two results you get have the same amount of digits, the same for the original pair.
Eg:
123 586
150*600=90000
100*500=50000
So 5 digits
"I am sure. Again, we have a rigorous concept of limits to show that this is the case."
----A rigorous limit concept to show as closer as we can, then imagine the reaching part??
The most Tricky Proof:
10*0.999...=9.999...
-) 0.999...=0.999...
9*0.999...=1
For the first step I get 10*0.999...=9.99... step by step, digits by digits so far. Thus the proof left a bothering remainder and is not so convincing.
An arguement against this is that 0.999... is a all developed state where are infinite 9's. Such state does exist in the lecturer's head. But it is sheer imaginery. Could I imagine a "well developed" state like 0.999...91? They may argue it doesn't make sense. Well, I don't know if I am not permitted to think of the infiniteth digit another way, but I demand the right. Further, if everyone comes up with different ideas about infinity, infinity is an art terminology.
Another argument against it is the "The impossibility of infinite steps" one again- how do I know it's a state? So far I can do is to write 0.9, 0.99, 0.999,..., 0.9999999, which are all numbers and constant, stable, and unvarying. I don't know if infinity vary or not, and if it does not, what is it? -It's just the amount you cannot count. Okay, how complex!
One proof that 0.9+0.09+0.009+... is a number is a limit convergence proof, which could be disproved by Post 49.
The last proof that 0.9+0.09+0.009+... is a number is the " A strict increasing series must have a least upper bound" proof, definately having something to do with the Real defination created by Georg Cantor. Actually the Reals are defined as approaching something, which I should write a little bit the other day.
Post 26#, just another "closing so reaching" guess, though you've made a great identity which I agree as well.
I admit i am a little dumb at figures. I can calculate 0.9+0.09, and I can count 0.9+0.09+0.0009+0.00009+0.000009 and any sum with finite entries. But I am not sure about what it will be after infinite, larger than any "many", additions. So who is sure? and how?
Perhaps the most rational way to know it or to guess it is use a limit. The limit, though, can only tell it will get closer and closer, rather than its ultimate arrival. This is pretty natural because the N-∈ is within the finite concept, meaning as close as you tell as long as enough steps, where "enough" is finite.
The limit is one guess less than the summation, and the guess is about infinity, another "closing so reaching" inference.
Ah, you're right. This is a harder problem than it looks then. Let's see...
If you have b bins, the chance that you'll finish with the 2nd ball is 1/b.
The chance of the 3rd ball finishing is 2/b*(b-1)/b, because you need to consider that there is a chance that you would never get to throw a 3rd ball.
So then the 4th ball has a chance of 3/b*(b-1)/b*(b-2)/b, using similar reasoning to above and it just gets more and more complicated as you go along.
I have no idea how to get all that into a nice simple formula though. Sorry.
Yes, I dwelled into this probiblities once, but I thought you'd got a simple solution. It's a pitty to see the simple formula fail.
5!!=5*3*1 instead of = (5!)!
n!! is a useful notation in Wallis Equation, which is used to derive the Normal Curve in probability.
Or
click here
then click on the title "Has famous maths problem been solved, and in only a month?
It has also defeated my gender discrimination.:o
"Or are you looking for expected meaning 50% chance of happening, in which case, I haven't done the math yet."
- this meaning more or less, though the chance probabilities are more complex. Too complex for this question!
It does not equal to any decimal notation, if by strict means.
Unstrictly, it can be written as 0.111... . I used to see it on some site when it is explained as when you go on dividing, you will simply get more and more 1 s, where "more" , I interpret, is still within "many" and thus finite framework.
Unstrictly, you can imagine 1/9 does equal to 0.111... when the latter imaginarily has infinite, larger than any "many", decimals, but still on a finite "closer and closer" or "more and more" experience basis.
infinitesimal isn't zero, at least in classic defination made more than 120 years ago.
Since infinitesimals don't exist in the reals, they are 0. But in more, uh, "complex" number systems, there are non-zero infinitesimals.
Hey, since Ricky don't exist in the reals, he is 0-just kidding.
An infinitesimal isn't even a number at all, at least highlighted in most caculus books.
for instance,
a(aa+ab+bb)-b(aa+ab+bb)= (a-b)(aa+ab+bb)= a^3-b^3You know better than anyone George that an instance does not make a proof.
I'm not sure how you would algebraically solve your formula, would you mind showing me the steps?
Sure, I shall illustrate Post #6 in detail.
Typically, we wanna know if a[sup]n[/sup]-b[sup]n[/sup] could be expressed as (a-b)A, where A is some polynomial.
A could be find out-
Hence
Using notation, the proof would be:
Hence
Forget it-i'm not curious about the answer any more. Guess the answer of this complex question is a waste for me.
A Mathematical Analysis book would introduce George Cantor's theory. Is Kurt Godel real different? I heard that there is a trinity of the defination of Reals, which means the three are equivalent.
Thank you Toky0 anyway.
By the way, is your avator R2? Star Wars..Interesting.
Dross's and akademika's similar prooves involve a more complex structure. I will explain them with lots of detail the other day.
Proof via 1/9=0.111... or 1/3=0.333... is comparatively easier to defy. In previous posts the former as an example is questioned from the begining. That is to say no proof can make 1/9 equal to 0.111... with infinite decimals.
It may be some cruel instead of fun in my proof, but a proof is either true or false, a zero-sum game. It was also cruel for those who thought 0.999...=1 was wrong previously.
zero is a useful concept, which means "nothing", "not any".
It is particularly useful when it comes to negative numbers. I guess the first time a negative number occurred was the time when people had property and trade with debts. Hence zero played an important role as the cancelled-out. I owe you 5 pigs, I have 5 from you, but then I give you 5, I have -5 from you, thus due.
cray, decimal system isn't just symbols, and every decimal represents some exponent of 10. 123.45 represents 1*10[sup]2[/sup]+2*10[sup]1[/sup]+3*10[sup]0[/sup]+4*(1/10)+5*(1/10)[sup]2[/sup]
so decimals are fractions by nature. Infinite decimals add even one more idealization than rationals.
infinitesimal isn't zero, at least in classic defination made more than 120 years ago.
That's the trick. Actually there could be two types of functions or series having the same limit C.
One is constantly C, within some domain or since some step (which could be 1 to be general)
The other one is approaching C, and never reach C in the field of functions . However, some people believe it can reach C when it is a series and at Entry Infinity. Here another piece of strong evidence of objection - inconsistency.
1.0=1 1.00=1 1.000=1 ... though 1.000... may not exist, it can lead to some 1.00000000 in practice and caus little trouble. It's fortunate enough to get a clear result to put it other words.
But 0.999... do cause some trouble. Perhaps 0.9999999999 in practice. For example, NASA can reduce the chance of accident by having one more check. Are you confident that after many checks no accident? Infinite checks??? Come on...
for instance,
a(aa+ab+bb)-b(aa+ab+bb)= (a-b)(aa+ab+bb)= a^3-b^3
Yes, but that doesn't need to be an induction.
will do
Use Matlab for a good approximation.
Please give your answer if you find one. Actually this is a hard and challenging topic indeed.