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stefy, I'm from the US if that's what you mean. Would you like more specifics?
William, Looks good to me. When differentiating e^(ax) we get the coefficient a multiplied by e^(ax).
When integrating e^(ax) we get the coefficient 1/a instead ((1/a)e^(ax)). Obviously if we differentiate this integral the 1/a and the a from the derivative cancel leaving e^(ax).
So you have used substitution to derive the formula int(e^cx dx) = (1/c)e^cx + C which can then be used to do the second integration after "pulling out" the -1/a and letting -a=c in the formula.
I gotta get LaTex going. I wish some of these shorter posts would include the corresponding LaTex
code for a while at least for the lines with integrals. At this point the only latex I know much about is the kind in gloves and tubes for filling cracks.
It's kinda interesting that the formula lets you know whether or not you have a legitimate triangle.
If it gives zero then it indicates that you have a "pretty doggone flat triangle." Eg. 4,5,9.
It gives a negative number under the radical when it can't be a triangle. Eg. 4,5,10.
True! I should have asked the question in a separate paragraph. I was just trying to point out the easy way to do integration by parts in case he hadn't seen it. It's really cool!
Dr. Guy passed away several years ago. However I did have the pleasure of taking several courses from him. Dr. Guy and a high school teacher R. J. Wood (Edison High in San Antonio) were my mentors. My style of teaching was pattered after Dr. Guy's.
Top of the mornin' to you!
Problems of this nature (integrals obtained by rotation as mentioned) if they are amenable to integral tables or substitution methods are usually highly rigged. Rotation problems like this with just any old function f(x) usually generate horrendous integrands not amenable to elementary methods.
This may be one of those "bad" ones. I tried several different substitutions (algebraic, trigonometric, integration by parts) and got nowhere.
Good luck with it!
yup! you got it right except for adding in the constant of integration. Have you seen the tabular technique of integration by parts? As I understand it was created by Dr. William T. Guy at the University of Texas in the 1960's or so. Some calculus textbooks introduce this tabular technique. It makes integration by parts a snap and useful instead of something to be avoided.
0/0 is symbolism in calculus for an indeterminate form, not for a number in the Reals.
Since 0 has no multiplicative inverse 0/0 which would come from the definition of division and the product of 0 with its reciprocal is NOT an ALLOWABLE construct in the field; that is, we shouldn't even be writing it and viewing it as if it might be a real number.
Also when defining fractions starting with the whole numbers W={0,1,2,3,...} they are typically defined by the set F = { p/q | p and q are whole numbers and q is not zero }. There is no member of this set F that has a zero in the denominator. To write 2/0 for example is to write something that is not a fraction.
But 0^0 as argued earlier is not equivalent to 0/0. We are not then constrained to leave it out of our definition. We can leave it out of our definition of exponentiation or make our defininition of
exponentiation include it. If left out of the definition it remains undefined. If we include it in our definition then one would hope that it would make sense. Defining ... x^3=1*x*x*x, x^2=1*x*x , x^1=1*x and following this "pattern" sensibly produces x^0 = 1 (multiplied by no x's).
I like 0^0 = 1 because as stated several times already it sure is CONVENIENT. One convenience not mentioned before is that for expressions in algebra like (2x-1)^0, this equals 1 when x=1/2. So we don't have to make an exception and say that (2x-1)^0 =1 EXCEPT when x=1/2.
Don,
I've viewed some of the axioms as "shoddy" myself over the years. For example the axioms of commutativity state that for each x and y in field F, x+y=y+x and xy=yx. To me this is not as much a property of addition and multiplication as it is a property of the way we write these expressions.
We write in a linear left to right manner. So we have to choose one of the variables to write first and the other is written second. The axiom states that it doesn't matter which way we write it. The result is supposed to be the same. But suppose we superimpose 1 and 3 instead of writing 1+3 or 3+1. If someone doesn't see us write it, they wouldn't know which we wrote first and which second or whether we wrote part of each and then the rest of each, etc. Hence it is more of a concession to our method of writing sums than it is to the sum itself.
We could perhaps view the symmetry axiom similarly. If we wish to indicate the equality of a and b then we can write a=b or b=a. But our linear language makes us do one or the other. So the axiom says that it doesn't matter.
Yes. I agree that x^0 = x^(1-1) even if x=0. It's the x^(1-1) = x^1 * x^(-1) I have trouble with.
It appears to me that this is an application of the exponent rule x^(n+m) = x^n * x^m. But when x=0 the right hand side has the factor 0^(-1) which to me indicates the reciprocal of zero which does not exist. So it seems a law of exponents is being applied to an expression that has in it an undefined quantity. That appears to me to be an invalid step.
Oops! I thought post #26 got lost in hyperspace, so I redid it as #28.
Yes. I see nothing wrong with that equality even if x=0. It's the step
x^(1-1) = x^1 * x^(-1) that I have trouble with when x=0. It appears to be applying the law of exponents x^(a+b) = x^a * x^b. When x=0 and b=-1 the second factor is 0^(-1) which is what I have trouble with. To me this is indicating the reciprocal of 0 (equivalent notationally to 1/0) which the multiplicative inverse axiom precludes.
stefy,
It's true that x/y <> (x-1)/(y-1) in general but in this particular instance it works out OK.
(3lna)/(lnb) - 1 (3lna-lnb)/(lnb) by writing 1 as (lnb)/(lnb) and combining terms.
----------------- = ------------------
(lna)/(lnb) - 1 (lna-lnb)/(lnb) by writing 1 as (lnb)/(lnb) and combining terms.
In the complex fraction the denominators lnb of numerator and denominator cancel leaving
(3lna-lnb)/(lna-lnb) which equals (ln(a^3/b))/ln(a/b).
I gotta learn LATEX! Actually I can do a nice job of writing this using Word Perfect, but I doubt
that I can apply it to this site.
I'm afraid there is a fallacy in the argument that 0^0 = 0/0.
Let y be the reciprocal of x. Then xy=1. Now x^0 = x^(1-1) = x^1*x^(-1) = x*y = 1 (not x/y Oops)
This works fine for non-zero x. But when x=0 the y in the formula does not exist since zero has no reciprocal. Hence the quantities x^(-1) and y in the third and fourth expressions do not exist. Hence we cannot conclude that 0^0 = 0/0.
It is not valid to apply the law of exponents x^(1-1) = x^1*x^(-1) when x=0.
So 0^0 is not equal to 0/0 via this argument. We are then free to define 0^0 unless we can find some valid reason that it is not permissible; that is, some valid reason that it must remain undefined. So if we want to claim that 0^0 is undefined we need to find a valid proof of this.
We can certainly define a function f(x)=x/x by f(x)=1 if x<>0 and f(x)=a (a any real number) if x=0. And it is certainly nice to define this as 1 since this is the limit of the function as x approaches 0.
But this is not to say that the actual number 0 divided by itself (0/0) is one. That would be equivalent to saying that zero has a multiplicative inverse, which is precluded in the field axioms.
Allowing 0 to have a multiplicative inverse would cause zero to be equal to one and would crater the system out since all numbers would then be equal to zero and hence equal to each other.
Complex analysis, calculus, etc. are wonderful and have their place and usefulness, but I can't see the relevance to problems involving only the field axioms and order axioms.
I did Google "removable singularity" and look at Wikipedia's site. The area I like to deal in most is foundations of arithmetic and algebra. I took complex analysis, but that was many years ago.
I complement you on your great knowledge of complex analysis and wish you well in your continued studies in mathematics. Be blessed!
0^0 can be defined nicely immediately after introducing the field axioms which give us multiplication and the multiplicative identity 1.
There are a number of formulas in mathematics that are much nicer if 0^0 is defined to be 1.
You have probably seen several of them, so I won't go into them.
I don't see any reason to go up to calculus to try to make 0^0 work. The indeterminant form
0^0 in calculus is a form that limits may tend to BUT they never actually become 0^0. Hence using these types of limits seems inappropriate.
Let's go back and define exponentiation in a field (we will use the real number field). The usual definition is something like: ... x^3=x*x*x, x^2=x*x, x^1=x and following this pattern we would get x^0 to be a blank space. Hence x^0 is usually defined separately as x^0=1 if x is not equal to zero. And then 0^0 is usually said to be one or undefined.
To do it a little differently, let's define exponentiation as follows:
..., x^3=1*x*x*x. x^2=1*x*x. x^1=1*x. so following this pattern x^0=1. We don't need a separate definition for x^0. And this definition automatically makes 0^0=1 since it doesn't matter what the x is. Just drop the last x off of the right side of the definition for x^1=1*x.
This definition has been around a while, but it is still not widely known.
0*x=0 comes from a similar definition: ...3*x=0+x+x+x, 2*x=0+x+x, 1*x=0+x, 0*x=0.
This kind of definition works for any group. If e is the identity for the group and # is the symbol for the operation and x is an element of the group then we have
... x^3=e#x#x#x, x^2=e#x#x, x^1=e#x, x^0=e.
And this could be done with coefficients (like 3x, 2x, 1x, 0x above but in groups repeating the operation with a fixed element is usually represented by exponentiation).
This also works for union and intersection in topology where the identity for union is the null set and the identity for intersection is the whole space X. This eliminates the need for vacuous arguments for unions and intersections over a null family of sets.
How we define things in mathematics is extremely important. Also the symbolism we use can "make or break" a concept.
Regarding the statement that
(b/b)*a^3 = b*(a/b)^[ ln(a^3/b)/ln(a/b) ] let the quantity in the brackets be named x.
Then we have (b/b)*a^3 = b*(a/b)^x = b*(a^x)/(b^x) = (a^x)/(b^(x-1))
Of course if a or b is zero then these have problems, so assume they are not zero.
If a=b=1 then all of these expressions produce 1.
Now suppose that a=b and they are not zero and not one.
Then the leftmost expression equals b*((a^3)/b) = a^3 whereas the rightmost expression
becomes (a^x)/(a^(x-1)) = a which cannot equal a^3 since a is not 0 or 1.
(b/b)*a^3 = a^3 and would be equal to (a^x)/(b^(x-1)) for very few pairs (a,b).
I see no problem with the log transformations of x into the various forms listed.
My problem is that I can't believe that the first equality as listed above is correct.
Logarithms are very TRICKY and easy things with which to have a problem (can't end
a sentence with a peposition!).
By the way, how do you get that math to display so pretty? Using LATEX?
In the field axioms the multiplicative inverse axiom does not allow for zero to have a multiplicative inverse:
For each non-zero x in F there is a y in F such that x*y=1. Typically we write y as 1/x.
If x were zero then y would be "1/0" so x*(1/x) = 0*(1/0) = 0/0.
If zero had a multiplicative inverse then this would yield one.
On the other hand it has been shown many times that zero times any number is zero.
Thus we could conclude that 1=0. This makes any number equal to zero. Hence our
number system is reduced to a single number.
Such a system would be nice to work with, but not very useful.
The field axioms and the order axioms for the real number system do not involve limits.
Hence I have trouble "hooking up" with arguments about the real number system that
resort to limits from calculus. Calculus has lots of "strange things" due to pushing things
to infinity. But that's a totally different story.
Yeah. I tried putting something like "Math is a language issue more than a brain issue. Needs fixin'" but it didn't stick. I'll try something else a little later.
Thanks! Have a blessed day!
You're right! Even further back than I thought. You'd think a mathematician could count to 5 and stop there when supposed to!
Thanks stefy! I was curious and wanted to give 'em an opportunity to clarify. But of course the post was from July so I figured I probably wouldn't get a reply from the poster, postman, or whatever they are called.
You just wrote the sequence of letters "jkhkj." If you consider this a set then it is a multiset, namely {k,k,j,j,h} with the order being unimportant. If you consider this a set from classical
set theory corresponding to T/F logic then the duplicates would be eliminated and it would be
equal to {k,j,h} with the order unimportant. {k,j,h} can be considered the Typeset of the
original multiset {k,k,j,j,h}; that is, T{k,k,j,j,h}={k,j,h} where T is an operator that eliminates
the duplicates from a set leaving one of each type.
That being said, is there a question somehow encoded in your sequence "jkhkj"?
Thanks again. I'm signing off and going to get some shut eye. At my age I need a good bit of it.
Blessings to you!
bobbym and stefy,
Thanks for your replys. Indeed I am a rank novice at navigating this site. Been teaching math for
40 some odd years, but am not very saavy at navigating on the internet. I'll try a simple one line
quote and see if that will stick. By the way, the first two times I signed up for this site the password
given to me would not work when I tried to log in. Third time was a charm. Now I can log on.
Thanks
Help Stefy!
I can't get my signature to stay on. I create it and it shows in the preview, but it doesn't show up on
my messages. Then next time I go to my profile page it has disappeared! What must I do to get it
to appear on my messages (at all much less consistently)?
Thanks!
I must admit the "and you are looking at it" (meaning the second number) didn't register in my mind
to begin with. So now what does that mean. Is it part of the given number, a permutation of it, or
what? Or could we be looking at it somewhere in the three columns? Somewhere within the three
columns I am seeing every digit 0 through 9. Can I then create any number I want? This opens up
a whole new ball game in my mind.
Number the rows in the first two columns 0 through 8. Then for the ith row (i from 0 to 8) divide
the number, say n, in that row by n-i. Enter the remainder for the result, that is, n mod (n-i).
Fill out the last column using the same technique except for the last entry do 273 mod 273 to get 0.
Does this not satisfy the conditions mentioned? But this sounds too easy.