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#1 2005-10-13 00:06:08
- Jai Ganesh
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- Registered: 2005-06-28
- Posts: 48,395
Proof :- e equal to one
Proof :- e equal to one
Theorem: e=1
Proof:
2*e = f
2^(2*pi*i) x e^(2*pi*i) = f^(2*pi*i)
We know e^(2*pi*i) = 1
Therefore:
2^(2*pi*i) = f^(2*pi*i)
2=f
Thus:
e=1
It appears to me that if one wants to make progress in mathematics, one should study the masters and not the pupils. - Niels Henrik Abel.
Nothing is better than reading and gaining more and more knowledge - Stephen William Hawking.
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#2 2005-10-13 16:12:34
- Jai Ganesh
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- Registered: 2005-06-28
- Posts: 48,395
Re: Proof :- e equal to one
You are right, this was a proof I found in a Mathematics Jokes page.
It is obviously faulty, and you have said where the error lies. I too had figured it out, but left it open for discussion.
It appears to me that if one wants to make progress in mathematics, one should study the masters and not the pupils. - Niels Henrik Abel.
Nothing is better than reading and gaining more and more knowledge - Stephen William Hawking.
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#3 2008-04-04 14:57:42
- simron
- Real Member
- Registered: 2006-10-07
- Posts: 237
Re: Proof :- e equal to one
a=b
a^2=ab
(a^2)-(b^2)=ab-(b^2)
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
b+b=b (substitution from equation 1)
1+1=1
2=1!!!
Linux FTW
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#4 2008-04-04 15:41:04
- JaneFairfax
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- Registered: 2007-02-23
- Posts: 6,868
Re: Proof :- e equal to one
Ew! Division-by-zero fallacy proofs are so stale!
Last edited by JaneFairfax (2008-04-04 23:12:58)
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#5 2008-04-06 12:38:44
- John E. Franklin
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- Registered: 2005-08-29
- Posts: 3,588
Re: Proof :- e equal to one
Nice point Jane&Simron.
Should certain algebraic steps bring along
domain baggage when utilizing them?
So dividing by (a-b) means that
if a - b is zero then the results following
that step are bogus?
igloo myrtilles fourmis
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