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To find an inversion is to let 1 divide it.
However, I've found out an easier approach to approximate the inversion of some number close to 1 with great precision. And the title demonstrates some examples of this method.
Have you guessed what's the method?
And the reason behind it??![]()
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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It looks like you're taking the amount that the thing you're inverting is less than one by, then adding it and its square to 1.
I don't think I could have explained that more badly if I'd tried. ![]()
As an example, say we have 0.94. This is less than one by 0.06, so you add that and its square (0.0036) to 1, which gives 0.0636.
I think this works because you're approximating 1/(1-x) by 1 + x + x², and I would guess that those are the first three terms of the MacLaurin expansion. You're neglecting all the terms after that, but because x is close to 0 and all of those terms would involve at least an x³, they don't affect the answer too much.
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
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Correct! ![]()
I need this approximation badly to work on my slide bar. The arcsine scale between 80° to 90° is too rough, making getting the angle back from its sine 0.985 to 0.99 imprecise. However, the arccot scale between 80° to 90° is detailed enough and it also provides a scale of √(1+x²). When x=tgx, √(1+x²)=1/sinx. So having developed this method, I can find the angle through its sine with great precision. I get the inverse of its sine first and find it on √(1+x²) scale, then x scale represents its cot, arccot scale revealing its angle.
By this method arcsin0.95=71.6° and the calculator gives the result 71.805...°.
arcsin0.993= 83.22° actual 83.216....°
Very close.
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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Lucky that MacLaurin expansion doesn't get too complicated for 1/(1-Δx) ![]()
Last edited by George,Y (2007-05-14 02:24:22)
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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