Math Is Fun Forum

  Discussion about math, puzzles, games and fun.   Useful symbols: ÷ × ½ √ ∞ ≠ ≤ ≥ ≈ ⇒ ± ∈ Δ θ ∴ ∑ ∫ • π ƒ -¹ ² ³ °

You are not logged in.

#1 2009-11-17 06:08:38

wonderboy1953
Member
Registered: 2009-10-31
Posts: 2

Is this another version of Fermat's Last Theorem?

I've been studying the hypermultigrade 1^k x a^n + 2^k x b^n + 3^k x c^n... = 1^k x d^n + 2^k x e^n + 3^k x f^n.... It appears that this creature (the hypermultigrade) will never work when (k + n)>3 and can work when 0<= (k + n) =<3 [with the sole exception that a base term nor a coefficient can't equal 0 when (k + n) = 0] which is my extended conjecture. The next step is to determine which types of multigrades it will work for.

The intermediate step is to prove that the equation on top won't be valid in whole numbers whenever (k + n)>3 or k>2 or n>2. The final step is to prove or disprove that this correlates exactly with Fermat's Last Theorem, i.e. one and the same.

Offline

#2 2009-11-17 12:00:40

Identity
Member
Registered: 2007-04-18
Posts: 934

Re: Is this another version of Fermat's Last Theorem?

That looks fascinating, I'm sorry I can't give much advice but best of luck with it!

Offline

#3 2009-11-17 13:21:18

Ricky
Moderator
Registered: 2005-12-04
Posts: 3,791

Re: Is this another version of Fermat's Last Theorem?

Your equation doesn't make sense.  Perhaps what you want is


"In the real world, this would be a problem.  But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist.  So we'll go ahead and do that now..."

Offline

Board footer

Powered by FluxBB