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Hi, I think i have found a way to use induction for integer set too (don't know if it was discovered before this post) by extending the axiom of induction we get "if S is a subset of Z and (a) 0 belongs to S,(b) for n belonging to S (n+1) belongs to S,(c)for n belonging to S (n-1) belongs to S ,then S=Z." if I'm wrong I hope others will correct me.
There are 10 kinds of people in the world,people who understand binary and people who don't.
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I think (c) is unneccessary there, and the rest just represents the axiom of induction.
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By (c) i stated that -1,-2,-3,-4,... are in S,the general axiom doesn't state that.
There are 10 kinds of people in the world,people who understand binary and people who don't.
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I think (c) is unneccessary there, and the rest just represents the axiom of induction.
Last edited by scientia (2013-02-17 23:36:12)
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So,can this axiom be used to prove stuff for integers?
There are 10 kinds of people in the world,people who understand binary and people who don't.
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