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no..it's not, i will prove it as soon as i get the article.
it's not 1....i have to find the article, but it's not 1
no, the answer is not 1...look for an article by John Loase.
thats the answer? i dont know, the question is in degrees not radians
I'd like to know the answer to this also....any ideas?
I need to explain/ prove, why
( 1 - lamda/n)^(- lamda/n) --> e
the only thing i got to start with is that lamda= n* Theta?
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