You are not logged in.
Pages: 1
I need to explain/ prove, why
( 1 - lamda/n)^(- lamda/n) --> e
the only thing i got to start with is that lamda= n* Theta?
Offline
I have seen proofs go from Probability(x;lamda)= (lamda^x*e^-lamda)/x! when x=0,1,2...
when n-->∞
θ-->0
nθ=lambda=constant but at this step, when ( 1 - lamda/n)^(- lamda/n) --> e they just skip this step/explanation...any ideas on why this step works?
Pages: 1