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Ooooh yes that seems about right, thank you both of you!
So, to prove this, I should presumably show that AB = CD and AD = BC. Should I also show that BD is perpendicular to AC?
There is no need to show BD is perpendicular to AC. The two equalities are enough.
Weird thing, though - the spellchecker is marking "equalities" in red.
Of course. We should consider:
I'm saying that if both matrices aren't invertible, then there are cases where ab≠ba. I am not saying it's always the case if at least matrix is singular, because it isn't case (any matrix, singular or not, commutes with the identity matrix).
I think Stolz might be of more use here, considering the discreteness of the problem.
hi Stefy,
Yes, I agree. But how else to do this?
Bob
There is no way to do it, because it isn't true.
I think C should be (-5,-5).
hi Gate2015
Welcome to the forum.
Q7. Multiply both sides on the right by inverse b and then on the left by inverse a.
Bob
Except the inverses might not exist.
Nope, something way more important. It has been called the algorithm of the 20th century and hardly anyone knows anything about it.
Might that be PSLQ?
How much does it differ from Texas?
I think I know what the first one is. How's the second one played?
Your polynomial is the same as his.
That is not correct, they are not the same.
Okay, that is true.
What's your favourite variant?
Most of them will be unnecessary, but there are certain types of sentences that are hard to say without double negation. For example "I've never been there" would require double negation.
The whole thing is a negative, no matter how many negations are in there.
Bengali grammar? In Serbian, double negations do not cancel out!
That is correct, but it is not considered a pair. A hand can be of only one type.
Hi Agnishom
What's happening is you need to do this test on two functions. You take the derivative of one w.r.t. x and the other w.r.t. y and see if they're equal. If they are, you can conclude they are the y and x (in that order) derivatives of the same function. Why does it work? Because of the identity you posted! Every functions second order mixed partial derivative is unique, no matter which variable you derive with respect to first. Thus, given two functions p(x,y) and q(x,y), if there is a function f(x,y) such that d/dx f(x,y)=p(x,y) and d/dy f(x,y)=q(x,y), then we know that this equation holds:
d/dy d/dx f(x,y)=d/dx d/dy f(x,y) which is equivalent to:
d/dy p(x,y)=d/dx q(x,y)
As you can see, this is an obvious statement and is not of much use. But what the Euler's criterion states is the converse of the above i.e. "if two functions, p(x,y) and q(x,y), satisfy the last equation I wrote above, then there is a function f(x,y), such that d/dx f(x,y)=p(x,y) and d/dy f(x,y)=q(x,y).
Your polynomial is the same as his.
Where did you come across the? It might help us know how to approach it.
Two of a kind
That's what he said.
The 6 and 4 are for choosing the suits.
Try composing (12) and (13) both ways.
There are 13*12*4*6 full houses.
I like composition from the right as well but don't like that notation. I prefer to call that permutation (2 3 1).
So, how does one begin to get into p?