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Hi
I'm having real problems with something. I'm trying to work out % of decrease in value of 3 currencies against the British Pound as follows:
BRL USD EU
USD 5/3/07 4.1319 1.9455 1.4790
USD 5/3/09 3.3769 1.4075 1.1221
% drop 18% 28% 24%
I can't work out why the BRL, which made the biggest loss, is showing the lowest %. I must be using the wrong formula to work out the percentages (I'm dividing the 09 figure by the 08 figure).
I expected the BRL to have the highest % drop but it's the lowest.
Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong?
It's driving me nuts!
Thank you
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Your calcultions are correct.
The reason is BRL had/has a higher value of exchange (Vs GBP) than USD and EU. Hence higher drop is taken care by the higher value. Nothing's wrong!
It appears to me that if one wants to make progress in mathematics, one should study the masters and not the pupils. - Niels Henrik Abel.
Nothing is better than reading and gaining more and more knowledge - Stephen William Hawking.
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Oh thank you so much!
So on that basis, is the person getting GBP to BRL still off than the person getting GBP to USD? The % is lower but the difference between the 2 is higher. I need a penny to drop here!
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