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Hello guys!(and sorry for my english..)
i am looking for a proof with induction at the above excercise...is at Propositional Logic...
the problem is this : (p1 ^p2...^pn) <-> ~(~p1 \/ ~p2 ...\/pn)...
thanx in advance for your help...
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If you understand the proof of De Morgan's rule for just two variables, then use induction to get the general statement.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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