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Hi boys and girls
I recently encounter an interesting task on studying fund rating methodologies. And I fund Lipper's Preservation Measure is
Sum(Min(0,ri))/T or Sum(Min(0,ri))/N*(T/N)
What it actually does is turn all the positive return r's to 0 and compute the average.
If we assume r normally distributed as N(u,s²)
The negative expectation can be modeled as E- =∫r*pdf dr over (-∞,0)
I came up with the answer
E-= u*N(-u/s)-(s/√2π)*exp(-u²/2s²)
But Michael Stutzer in his paper Mutual Fund Ratings: What is the Risk in Risk-Adjusted Fund Returns? derived an approximation as
Could you check this out and tell me why the difference? Thanks!![]()
Last edited by George,Y (2010-06-23 14:52:16)
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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Here is the paper. I can't find the computation you claim.
Also, be careful George. You need to assume an infinite amount of real numbers in order to calculate that integral ![]()
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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at page 19
"You need to assume an infinite amount "
If infinite independent factors were real, normal curve would have explained everything. Unfortunately, there is always "fat tail" phenomenon, which indicates only finite factors in the real world.
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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page 39 appendix
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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