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Dear all,
i'm struggling to find a way to show that
holds for all integers and .Could anybody help me out with a hint on how to proceed?
Thanks a lot!
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Hi hypatia;
So far I haven't been able to algebraically manipulate your inequality so that it is obviously true. Maybe you can apply induction?
Download this pdf on induction;
http://www.mathdb.org/notes_download/el … /ae_A2.pdf
It appears now that you have two strategies ,one is to relax the condition on either k or n of being an integer and defining one of them as Real. Then you can do a single dimensional induction on the other variable.
Or you can use what is on page 12 of the pdf as induction with 2 variables.
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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