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I have to implicitly differentiate the following and then form an equation for dy/dx:
xy/π + sinxlnx = cosx + 1
I then have to show that the gradient is lnx when x=π.
I have tried doing it several times but it seems i keep getting the wrong answer.
Any ideas?
Thanks so much in advance!
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hi Carisma
hhmmmm. me too. I assumed that n is a constant and that sinxlnx means sinx times logbase e of x.
Here's what I did:
xy/n + sinxlnx = cosx + 1 => y/n = [cosx + 1 sinxlnx]/x
diff. wrt x
y/n + (x/n) .dy/dx + (sinx)/x + cosxlnx = -sinx + 0
dy/dx = [-sinx (sinx)/x cosxlnx y/n].n/x
if x = n
dy/dx = [-sinx (sinx)/x cosxlnx (cosx)/x 1/x (sinxlnx)/x].1
I cannot see a way of making that become lnx (the .../x and trig bits just don't cancel).
So I'm suspecting I'm mis-interpreting the problem.
Any chance you could copy the original exactly (screen shot or reference if it's off the web)?
Bob
Last edited by Bob (2010-08-03 05:17:28)
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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Are you sure the question didn't say
x = n times pi where n is an odd integer
sin x is then zero and cos x = -1
then dy/dx = pi ln x.
Thought: maybe the 'pi's have gone missing from this question.
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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