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What happens to the limit of F(x) as x approaches to 1:
[(x^2)-x-2]/[(x^2)-1]
L'hopital rule can not be applied in this case, since it is not 0/0 , and if we simply , we get (x-2)/(x-1), which doesn't work as well
I'm leaning towards that this limit does not exist. I'd be grateful if anyone can help me out
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Hi sami4;
You are on the right track. Try examining it when x = .9, .99, .999 ...
and then when x = 1.1,1.01,1.001...
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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Thank you for your quick reply.
As X approaches to 1 from above, the limit goes to + infinity and as X approaches to 1 from below, the limit goes to - infinity. Therefore it does not exist as X -> 1
Last edited by sami4 (2010-11-30 22:53:07)
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you are right. the limit does not exist.
draw a graph of (x-2)/(x-1) and you will know better.
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In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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Thank you so much. You have been very helpful
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Hi sami4;
Your welcome and welcome to the forum.
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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