You are not logged in.
Pages: 1
Hi guys,
Suppose following axiomatization of real numbers:
(+ 1)
(. 1)
(+ .)
(< 1) forall
forall , one of the following holds: , ,(sup) Let
be non-empty set, s.t. it has upper bound. ThenNow following theorem holds: There is precisely one element (which will be denoted
), which is solution of equation .Now proof is straightforward and I will not finish it. My problem is that
is formal symbol of our first-order theory (i.e. it is non-logical constant) and no axiom define any property that should obbey. However the first step of the theorem says something like . My question is why is this correct? I don't see any inference rule which interlinks and axiom (+ 3).any ideas why is that correct? thanks
Offline
Now following theorem holds: There is precisely one element (which will be denoted ), which is solution of equation .
Proof: Assume some fixed . Let the only solution of be denoted by symbol . So holds.Now proof is straightforward and I will not finish it.
Last edited by Sylvia104 (2011-09-19 05:28:11)
Offline
Now
Add
to the first equation and to the second equation. By using a combination of the commutative and associative axioms for addition, you should getBy uniqueness,
as required.Offline
Apologies. If you substitute in (+ 3) you only prove part of the theorem, namely that for all elements there exists a unique such that . Let be any other element, so there exists a unique such that . We need to show that .Now
Add
to the first equation and to the second equation. By using a combination of the commutative and associative axioms for addition, you should getBy uniqueness,
as required.
This is a nice proof. Thank you!
Offline
You're welcome.
Offline
Pages: 1