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Hi, amiable friends, and I took a quadratics test today. I was somewhat confused by this question.
If the coefficients of a quadratic equation are real, and if one of the roots is (1-sqrt(3)), the other root must be (1+sqrt(3)).
TRUE?
FALSE?
This shouldn't be true, should it? The other root can be anything, and the coefficents would still be real.
Last edited by Mathegocart (2018-03-13 11:39:06)
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Hi,
False.
Other than
, there are any number of possibilities. Some are . is one of them.It appears to me that if one wants to make progress in mathematics, one should study the masters and not the pupils. - Niels Henrik Abel.
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Hi,
False.
Other than
, there are any number of possibilities. Some are . is one of them.
I'd find interesting to share the different ways we use to approach the problem. My immediate view was graphical, for instance. And yours algebraic, I suppose.
I "saw" a parabola "free to move" but its fixed point
Last edited by Libera (2018-03-15 23:43:23)
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If the coefficients of a quadratic equation are real, and if one of the roots is (1-sqrt(3)), the other root must be (1+sqrt(3)).
TRUE?
FALSE?
If the coefficients were rational, then the statement would be true. It’s false if you allow the coefficients to be irrational, as the replies below your post show.
If the coefficients are real and one of the roots is complex (and non-real), then the other root must be the complex conjugate. This statement also fails if you allow the coefficients to be complex.
Me, or the ugly man, whatever (3,3,6)
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If the coefficients were rational, then the statement would be true.
In general, if the coefficients are rational and one root is an irrational surd, then the other root must be the conjugate surd. This is not true if the coefficients can be irrational as well as rational.
Me, or the ugly man, whatever (3,3,6)
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