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#1 2024-04-30 09:58:57

mathxyz
Member
From: Brooklyn, NY
Registered: 2024-02-24
Posts: 1,053

Negative Exponents

Let a = any number = n.

Prove that a^(-n) = 1/ a^(n), where a does not equal 0.

Why must we put a^(n) under 1?

Where does 1 come from?

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#2 2024-04-30 20:03:25

Bob
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Registered: 2010-06-20
Posts: 10,637

Re: Negative Exponents

Read the (number)^1 and a^0 answers first.

Using rule one  a^n x a^(-n) = a^(n-n) = a^0 = 1

So a^(-n) behaves like 1/(a^n) so it is defined to be that.

Other properties involving powers can be 'worked out' using the rules.

eg.  You can work out what a^(0.5) means by considering a^(0.5) x a^(0.5)

Bob


Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything;  you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you!  …………….Bob smile

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#3 2024-05-01 04:57:14

mathxyz
Member
From: Brooklyn, NY
Registered: 2024-02-24
Posts: 1,053

Re: Negative Exponents

Bob wrote:

Read the (number)^1 and a^0 answers first.

Using rule one  a^n x a^(-n) = a^(n-n) = a^0 = 1

So a^(-n) behaves like 1/(a^n) so it is defined to be that.

Other properties involving powers can be 'worked out' using the rules.

eg.  You can work out what a^(0.5) means by considering a^(0.5) x a^(0.5)

Bob

Exponent rules are defined in the textbook and in most basic college algebra courses. Math teachers expect students to memorize the rules rather than to derive them. This is a huge mistake. Bob, isn't this what indoctrination is all about? If not, what is indoctrination?

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