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Let a = any number = n.
Prove that a^(-n) = 1/ a^(n), where a does not equal 0.
Why must we put a^(n) under 1?
Where does 1 come from?
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Read the (number)^1 and a^0 answers first.
Using rule one a^n x a^(-n) = a^(n-n) = a^0 = 1
So a^(-n) behaves like 1/(a^n) so it is defined to be that.
Other properties involving powers can be 'worked out' using the rules.
eg. You can work out what a^(0.5) means by considering a^(0.5) x a^(0.5)
Bob
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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Read the (number)^1 and a^0 answers first.
Using rule one a^n x a^(-n) = a^(n-n) = a^0 = 1
So a^(-n) behaves like 1/(a^n) so it is defined to be that.
Other properties involving powers can be 'worked out' using the rules.
eg. You can work out what a^(0.5) means by considering a^(0.5) x a^(0.5)
Bob
Exponent rules are defined in the textbook and in most basic college algebra courses. Math teachers expect students to memorize the rules rather than to derive them. This is a huge mistake. Bob, isn't this what indoctrination is all about? If not, what is indoctrination?
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