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I have this problem to do, and I've tried subbing in x=rcos and y=rsin, but I can't get it to do anything Any tips on how to get the ball rolling?
The problem is:
Use polar coordinates to evaluate
infinity
∫∫exp(-x²-y²)dydx
0
and hence show that
infinity
∫exp(-x²)dx=(√pi)/2
0
Thanks
Last edited by Talvon (2007-03-03 12:25:37)
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The formula for converting from (x,y) to polar co-ordinates for double integration is given here:
http://ltcconline.net/greenl/courses/20 … ration.htm
So if you substitute r and θ into your double integral, the integrand becomes rexp(−r[sup]2[/sup]), which can be easily integrated with respect to r.
Last edited by JaneFairfax (2007-03-03 13:00:34)
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I'm sorry but I don't get how -x² can equal -y² (From the page in your forum, which will be useful for the 2nd part of the question Half the range of the integral = Half the solution <_<) (http://z8.invisionfree.com/DYK/index.php?showtopic=136)
I can reproduce it to the stage of rexp(-r²), and I am having trouble getting to the next part (-1/2exp(-r²)). I have tried integration by parts, using u=exp(-r²) and dv/dr=r, but it's coming out nowhere near what it should be. What should I use? Is this the correct method?
Also, would I be correct in writing:
π ∞
∫ dθ ∫rexp(-r²) dr?
0 0
Thanks
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huh
Zappzter - New IM app! Unsure of which room to join? "ZNU" is made to help new users. c:
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I can reproduce it to the stage of rexp(-r²), and I am having trouble getting to the next part (-1/2exp(-r²)).
If you differentiate (−1/2exp(−r[sup]2[/sup])) with respect to r, you get rexp(−r[sup]2[/sup]), dont you? Therefore, if you integrate rexp(−r[sup]2[/sup]) with respect to r, you should get (−1/2exp(−r[sup]2[/sup])). (Plus an arbitrary constant but as youre working with a definite integral, you dont need to bother with arbitrary constants.) Its that simple.
Also youre wondering why
Why? Because its a definite integral, so the x and the y are just dummy variables. Indeed:
Last edited by JaneFairfax (2007-03-05 12:33:10)
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Excellent, I got it done
Thanks a lot
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