You are not logged in.
Pages: 1
I've been studying prime numbers but have got stuck on the following question, any suggestions would be much appreciated!!!
if p is prime, use al-Haytham to prove that
(p-2)!=1 mod p
I've looked at the proof when for (p-1)! but i havent been able to see how to adapt the proof to this question please help!!!
Offline
I dont know much about congruence
I looked up the al-Haytham theorm on Wiki
(p-1)! = -1 (mod p)
knowing that (p-2)!(p-1) = -1 (mod p)
(p-1) = -1 (mod p)
Thus (p-2)! =1 (mod p)
I am not sure if its correct lol
Offline
Pages: 1