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The solution to this problem is in the Solutions Manual. Here it is:
We havent covered fields in class, nor Zorn's lemma. I wonder why they put this kind of solution when it uses stuff we havent covered. Is there a way to do this problem using only groups, like, not using any of the stuff that the solution says "the reader is not yet prepared for" ?
Last edited by LuisRodg (2009-03-25 05:22:24)
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If you ignore the infinite case, there is no need for Zorn's Lemma. So we are assuming G is finite. You should be ok with the fact that G is abelian and x = -x. Do you know the fundamental theorem for finite(ly generated) abelian groups? That every finite abelian group is isomorphic to a finite number of copies of the integers modulo p (i.e. cyclic groups). Assuming you know this, consider the map that just moves around these generators. It is an automorphism and you can choose it to be non-trivial as long as G has more than one copy of the integers modulo p. We conclude from this that G is in fact the integers modulo p. But the requirement of x = -x now forces p = 2.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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"but the poor reader is not prepared for this"
what a strange book.
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hey could you help me with completing squares? its something that we are doing in algebra 1 right now
Br!++n3y Myl3$
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Please make a new post and we will try to help you.
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hey wats up my name is brittney could you help me with my math homework?::D
Br!++n3y Myl3$
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