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here is a question of limit...
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Hi!
I think your proof is rigorous enough. However, here you have a similar demo, based on Stirling's formula (approximates n!)
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/AsymptoticBoundsForFactorial.html
Jose
Make everything as simple as possible, but not simpler. -- Albert Einstein
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Hi mathkeep ,
The solution as I think is as follows:
n!/(n^n)=(n/n)((n-1)/n)((n-2)/n)...(2/n)(1/n)
but n-1<n means that ((n-1)/n)<1
n-2<n means that ((n-2)/n)<1
n-3<n means that ((n-3)/n)<1
.
.
.
( 2/n)<1
therefore ((n-1)/n)((n-2)/n)...(2/n)<1
so (n/n)((n-1)/n)((n-2)/n)...(2/n)<1
(n/n)((n-1)/n)((n-2)/n)...(2/n)(1/n)<1(1/n) so
(n/n)((n-1)/n)((n-2)/n)...(2/n)(1/n)<(1/n)
0 <n!/(n^n)<(1/n)
but lim 0 =0 and lim (1/n) = 0 both as n tends to ∞
and by squezing theorem we have lim (n!/(n^n))=0 as n tends to ∞ .
So the required limit is 0
W.B.W
Riad Zaidan
hi Riad Zaidan!
thanks for the proof..got convinced from that easily..
n juriguen thanks for the link too
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I think a much easier proof would be to just note that
Note that this is just using the fact that:
And then making this swap for each n, n-1, n-2, ... except for 1.
This shows that
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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. .
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Unfortunately soroban, the question was to prove that it converges to 0, not just to show convergence.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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I think a much easier proof would be to just note that
Note that this is just using the fact that:
And then making this swap for each n, n-1, n-2, ... except for 1.
This shows that
yeah a nice proof..thanks Ricky..
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Unfortunately soroban, the question was to prove that it converges to 0, not just to show convergence.
hmm..well Sorobon ...Ricky is right..anyways...that may help me in some other question :D
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.
Absolutely right, Ricky.
Thank you for the heads-up.
.
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Hi soroban
The question is the convergence of a sequence not of a series , and the convergence of a sequence does not mean that the corresponding series is convergent.
As an example the sequence 1/n converges to 0 but the series ∑(1/n) diverges.
w.b.w
Riad Zaidan
Wow That is A Big Problem.:|
fine go ahead
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