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Can someone please show me why the following is possible?
If
then
I don't understand this last step. In general are you allowed to multiply two integrals together to get a double integral?
Also, another question. The next step it says this is equivalent to
Is this a mistake? I thought you would integrate
from 0 to infinity, and integrate from 0 to ?Last edited by Identity (2009-08-29 23:17:07)
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Hi identity;
Thought you might find this interesting:
http://betterexplained.com/articles/a-c … plication/
For this particular type problem there is a formula:
Last edited by bobbym (2009-08-30 01:34:03)
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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The theorem is known as Fubini's theorem. You may ignore the hypotheses, they are all satisfied by your integral.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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For your 2nd question, if that's the order they have it, then yes it is a mistake. Note that you must integrate over theta first.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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Hi Identity
I think that the proff is as follows:
If we can seperate h(x,y) as h(x,y)=f(x)g(y) and x and y are independent variables then
∫∫h(x,y)dxdy=∫∫f(x)g(y)dxdy=∫(g(y)(∫f(x)dx)) dy by considering g(y) as a constant w.r.t x
Also ∫f(x)dx can be considered as a constant w.r.t y so
∫∫f(x)g(y)dxdy=∫(g(y)(∫f(x)dx) )dy ∫f(x)dx)(∫g(y) dy) as requiered
I hope that I am right
Best regards
Riad Zaidan
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Thanks everyone, in the end I think rzaidan's proof was easiest for me to understand.
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