You are not logged in.
Pages: 1
Hey guys.
A for Min is at home
B for Min is on board
C for Henry is at home, and
D for Henry is on board.
For...
(iii) Either both Min is on board and Henry is on board or neither is on board.
I was wondering whether (B ∧ D) ∨ (¬B ∧ ¬D) [ model answer ] is the same as (B ∧ D) ∨ ¬(B ∧ D) [my answer]
This may be really obvious but i'm just making sure cheers for the help guys
"...nothing physical which sense-experience sets before our eyes, or which necessary demonstrations prove to us, ought to be called into question (much less condemned) upon the testimony of biblical passages."
-Galileo Galilei
Offline
Not quite. If you want to take a NOT out of brackets like that, you need to switch the sign inside the bracket.
So (B ∧D) ∨ ¬(B ∨ D) is the same as the model answer.
Your answer is actually always true, since it's in the form <event> OR (NOT <event>)
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
Offline
Thanks for the reply
Also, would that make ¬(B ∨ D) equivalent to (¬B ∧ ¬D)
Last edited by ilovealgebra (2009-11-22 10:47:44)
"...nothing physical which sense-experience sets before our eyes, or which necessary demonstrations prove to us, ought to be called into question (much less condemned) upon the testimony of biblical passages."
-Galileo Galilei
Offline
Yes, that is De Morgan's Law and it can be proved with venn diagrams
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Morgan's_laws
Last edited by Identity (2009-11-22 11:31:48)
Offline
Pages: 1