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Does sequence {An^2} converges implies to sequence {An} converges? True or False. How to prove it?
I kinda think it is false, but couldnt think of any counterexample to directly proof it. So I try to use the 1) definition of convergence and 2) the Comparison Lemma to prove it, but kinda stucked.
Proof1: (Use definition of convergence)
Let sequence An^2 converges to a^2
Then according to the definition of convergence
For every E>0, Find N such that
|An^2-a^2|<E for all n>N
|(An-a)(An+a)|=|An-a||An+a|<E
|An-a|<E/|An+a|)
How can I go from here?
So if I can let N=E/|An+a|+1, then An converges to a. But I cant define N that has a sequence in it, can I?
Comparison Lemma states Let sequence {An} converges to a, and let {Bn} be a sequence such that |Bn-b|<= C|An-a| for some C>0, then Bn converges to b
Proof2: (Use Comparison Lemma)
Let sequence An^2 converges to n^2
Let {An} be a sequence such that |An-a|<=C|An^2-a^2| for some C>0
Now I need to find an C>0 so that I can prove that sequence An converges to a
How can I go from here?
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I kinda think it is false, but couldnt think of any counterexample to directly proof it.
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Got it, thanks!
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