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Hey guys,
Just looking for a little guidance on this question that my friend asked me to do.
It says:
a) Suppose that lim(x⇒a)f(x) exists and is nonzero. Prove that if lim(x⇒a)g(x) does not exist, then lim(x⇒a)f(x)g(x) also does not exist.
b) Prove the same result if lim(x⇒a)f(x) = ∞.
There are two ways that I have thought to do this. One is to try and achieve a contradiction through the assumption that the limit does exist, using the epsilon/delta definition. The other is to try and prove a 'not-limit' epsilon/proof by countering the normal epsilon/delta definition. I'm not sure which of these two methods would be simpler, or if neither? Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks
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a)
You can prove the contrapositive:
If lim(x⇒a)f(x)g(x) exists, then lim(x⇒a)g(x) also exists.
Assume that lim(x⇒a)f(x)g(x) exists.
Since lim(x⇒a)f(x)g(x) and lim(x⇒a)f(x) both exist and lim(x⇒a)f(x) is nonzero,
it follows that lim(x⇒a)g(x) [ = lim(x⇒a)f(x)g(x)/f(x) ] exists.
Last edited by benice (2012-03-21 01:11:48)
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