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"(i) Use the substitution x = 2 - cosθ to evaluate the integral
.(ii) Show that, for a < b,
where
and ."I have done the first part and got
which is correct (according to WolframAlpha). But the second part of the question confuses me. I have done this:
Let x = (b - a) - cosθ, then dx = sinθdθ
and I have ended up with this:
but I do not know where to go from here. Help would be appreciated.
Hmm, I am skeptical about that last line. According to W|A it is giving me a horrendous-looking solution.
Never mind, forget W|A, it is unable to solve the problem so I do not trust its solution.
Hi;
Alpha has a time limit. I do not think those two integrals are the same so something is wrong somewhere.
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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These two integrals are identical...
Checking them now.
Yes, they are the same.
In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.
If it ain't broke, fix it until it is.
Always satisfy the Prime Directive of getting the right answer above all else.
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Where can you get with the substitution x=(b-a)-a*cos(theta)?
Last edited by anonimnystefy (2012-10-07 12:02:52)
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