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let G be a group of order p^2 where p is a prime no. let x belongs to G. prove that {y belongs to G: xy=yx}=G
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does anyone know how to solve it?
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Hi
Is that the whole text for the problem?
Here lies the reader who will never open this book. He is forever dead.
Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most. ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment
The knowledge of some things as a function of age is a delta function.
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yes
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Beats me too. But I've posted the link off to my son. He may be willing to help.
Bob
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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What operation are you using in "xy=yx"?
Last edited by anonimnystefy (2012-11-28 04:19:56)
Here lies the reader who will never open this book. He is forever dead.
Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most. ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment
The knowledge of some things as a function of age is a delta function.
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I am using multiplication.
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I'm wondering if the following is any help.
Assume y exists with the property and z is another element of G, so that z = xy (=yx)
xyx = (xy)x = zx
xyx = x(yx) = xz
so z has the property.
And this is true for all z in G
So can you prove that y exists?
LATER EDIT: Yes? because y could be the identity.
So H = {y : xy=yx} has a member. If z = xy, then z is also a member. Keep combining elements in this way from G until you have generated all of G.
What worries me is "what has p got to do with it?" So I assume the above is flawed but why?
If you can tell me that, maybe together we can fill in the gaps.
EVEN LATER EDIT
I think I've answered my own question.
H may be a subset of G rather than all of G.
So I'm working on:
(i) Show H is a group.
(ii) Lagrange => order of H is 1, p or p^2
If 1, then the problem is trivial.
If p^2, then the problem is solved.
So I'm aiming to show that order p is not possible, (maybe by showing order(H) > p )
Bob
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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Hi Bob
The proof using z doesn't work if you take the base element to be the identity element, because you generate only x itself!
Here lies the reader who will never open this book. He is forever dead.
Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most. ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment
The knowledge of some things as a function of age is a delta function.
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By base element, I'm assuming you mean x.
Then it's easy.
H = {y∈G : iy = yi}
All y in G have this property so H = G straight away.
I've got to this.
Let x ∈ G.
xx = xx so x ∈ H
x(xx) = (xx)x so xx ∈ H
and so on.
So the cyclic group generated by x is a subset of H
note: cyclic groups are abelian.
If x ≠ i (the identity) then this subgroup has order p.
So now I'm trying to find a 'z' that is not in this cyclic group, but is in H.
One such would be sufficient as that makes the order of H > p
Bob
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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Suppose
. Then and so is cyclic, say . Let . Then and for some integers . Thus and for some .Hence x and y commute. Thus G is Abelian and so
. (Thus the case is acutally impossible.)Offline
Argh!
However, note that
is a subgroup of . Hence if (as I proved above) then necessarily as well so no harm done.Offline
thanks to you all
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