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Why does
((Pt)^(n-1))((Pi)^(1-n)) EQUAL the term ((Pi/Pt)^(1-n))? Apparantly these two are equivalent? I am not good at rearranging / how to change the signs on powers etc, can someone explain?
Thanks
I just wrote
Good luck!
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I just wrote
then did a bunch of algebra. Some things to remember while working it out:
andGood luck!
Thank you! So based on the first rule you said, then (Pi/Pt)^(1-n) = (Pi^(1-n)(Pt)^(1-n)...which isn't the answer. Can you help??
That's a start! Once you've got that, you should divide both sides by
Notice that
and you should be able to use that second rule I gave you.
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