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I know that limit of (1+1/n)^n as n approches infinity is e.the limit of (1+1/n)^n as n approches nagetive infinity is also e,but how do i prove that?
There are 10 kinds of people in the world,people who understand binary and people who don't.
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Do you know how to prove that
?If you do this, you can let x be -1, and you will get the required convergence (1/e).
Never mind, I forgot about the n in the power -- ignore my post
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