You are not logged in.
Pages: 1
Let f be a continuous function on the reals. Furthermore, assume that f is differential everywhere.
For all real x and y (such that y != 0), the following holds: f(x-y) = f(x)/f(y)
Assume that f'(0) = p
Can we use this to determine f?
Last edited by Agnishom (2017-07-25 05:03:31)
'And fun? If maths is fun, then getting a tooth extraction is fun. A viral infection is fun. Rabies shots are fun.'
'God exists because Mathematics is consistent, and the devil exists because we cannot prove it'
I'm not crazy, my mother had me tested.
Offline
Offline
Oh yes, that totally works. Thank you
'And fun? If maths is fun, then getting a tooth extraction is fun. A viral infection is fun. Rabies shots are fun.'
'God exists because Mathematics is consistent, and the devil exists because we cannot prove it'
I'm not crazy, my mother had me tested.
Offline
Pages: 1