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I know that d/dx [e^(x)] = e^(x).
My question:
Why is this the case?
Why is e^(x) its own derivative?
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It might help to consider what we actually mean by e^x.
What is the definition of e^x?
1. The hint does not help.
2. Can you explain in MATH FOR DUMMIES style of language?
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hi mathland
Somehow I knew in advance that you would want to know about this so I searched back through all my posts and found this:
http://www.mathisfunforum.com/viewtopic.php?id=25550
My last post in the thread was an offer to finish the lessons but only if the guy was interested. I got no response then, but the offer still stands.
Reply on that thread please rather than this one.
Bob
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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hi mathland
Somehow I knew in advance that you would want to know about this so I searched back through all my posts and found this:
http://www.mathisfunforum.com/viewtopic.php?id=25550
My last post in the thread was an offer to finish the lessons but only if the guy was interested. I got no response then, but the offer still stands.
Reply on that thread please rather than this one.
Bob
Please, finish the lesson. I am interested. This is a lot to digest but not if I divide the reading into 2 or 3 days.
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Please reply in that thread.
B
Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz
You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei
Sometimes I deliberately make mistakes, just to test you! …………….Bob
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Please reply in that thread.
B
Ok.
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