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f(x) =X² if x is rational , 0 if x is irrational
Prove that lim f(x) as x approaches 0 is equel to 0
If you always do what you always did, you'll always get what you always got
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Now observe that:
So a useful choice for delta would be
.Now you can show that the above is true:
Bad speling makes me [sic]
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what a great job Dross !
Is there any other way to prove without using the epsilon - delta defenition!? .
If you always do what you always did, you'll always get what you always got
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Depends on how rigorous you have to be - I suppose you could say that, if you are allowed to use the facts that:
and:
Then since f(x) alternates between x[sup]2[/sup] and 0, the result follows. Whether this would be acceptable depends on what you're supposed to know and how rigorous you're supposed to be, though.
Bad speling makes me [sic]
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