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apparently there is some simple proof for this, but i cant find it.
i have to proove that n(n+1)(n+2) where n is a natural number, is always a multiple of 6
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The expression (call it A) is a product of three consecutive integers, and any three consecutive integers always contain a multiple of 3. Therefore A is divisible by 3.
It is also divisible by 2 because any three consecutive integers must also contain at least one even number.
Since A is divisible by both 2 and 3, and 2 and 3 are coprime, it follows that A is divisible by 6.
Last edited by JaneFairfax (2007-03-19 04:59:43)
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proof its divisable by 3?
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oh right, thats common sense, nevermind ![]()
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Either n is divisible by 3 or its not.
If it is, fine. If not, then n = 3k+1 or n = 3k−1 for some integer k. It then follows that (n+2) or (n+1) respectively would be divisible by 3.
So one of n, (n+1), (n+2) is always divisible by 3. Hence the product n(n+1)(n+2) is always divisible by 3. ![]()
Last edited by JaneFairfax (2007-03-19 12:00:01)
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Or to put it another way, the next "divisible by 3" number is only 3 numbers away, so if you have 3 consecutive numbers, one will be.
Isn't it odd that we can say even, but there is no easy word for "divisible by 3" ... maybe "threven" ? And the two in-between would be "throdds"?
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and isn't it odd that you happened to use odd when talking about that, referring to the common pair of odd and even ![]()
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I even find it odd.
"The physicists defer only to mathematicians, and the mathematicians defer only to God ..." - Leon M. Lederman
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6=2x3,
There are two kinds of integers 2k and 2k+1 , thus it can be divided by 2
There are three kinds of integers 3k , 3k+1, 3k+2 , thus it can be divided by 3
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If you divide a natural by 3, the remainder is 0, 1, or 2. No other possibilities.
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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