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let A B be sets
f:A->B
suppose there is a function h:B->A with the property that f(h(b)=b for all bEB
show that f has to be surjective
please help will be much appreciated!!!
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For all b ∈ B, c = h(b) ∈ A and f(c) = b. That is all. QED
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Also see: Injective, Surjective and Bijective
"The physicists defer only to mathematicians, and the mathematicians defer only to God ..." - Leon M. Lederman
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