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if f and g are continuous functions on [0,1] such that
f(0)<g(0) and f(1)>g(1). Show that there must be an x in (0,1) for which f(x)=g(x)...
I know it's true and can prove it geometrically... but i think i should be proving it using calculus. I should probably be using the intermediate value theorem right?
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Yep, this is a job for the good ol' IVT.
Try considering h(x) := f(x) - g(x).
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
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Alright, I have h(x) = f(x) - g(x).
By def. of IVT (from my book) it says "Given h(x) on interval [a,b] and any x1 and x2 in the interval; then for any number, N, such that h(x1)<N<h(x2) then there exists as c in (a,b) such that h(c)=N."
So I have h(x) on the interval [0,1] with x1=0 and x2=1. So for any N between h(0) and h(1) there is a c such that h(c)=N.
So what new do i know? h(0)<=f(0)<=g(0) and g(1)<h(1)<f(1)...
So what? I'm not sure how this exactly helps.
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You're off to a good start, but don't compare h(0) and h(1) to other functions.
Instead, think about what sign their values will be, and use the IVT around that.
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
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A specific use of the IVT is to approximate 0's of a function. This is because if f is continuous, f(a) < 0 and f(b) > 0, then there must exist a point c in [a, b] where f(c) = 0.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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Gotcha mathsyperson thanks!
So because h(0) is less than 0 and h(1) is greater than 0 then at some point in the interval of (0,1) we will have a value,c, so that h(c) = 0. And thus, since h(x)=f(x)-g(x) this point is shared by f(x) and g(x)!
Thank you!!!
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