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I got a my grades posted today on a math test and there was one problem that I thought I did correctly, but it turns out I did it wrong.
Set up the integral using the shell method for:
Some please just explain how to set up this integral.
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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The formula to find the volume of a solid using the shell method is this:
So to set up your integral it would be like this:
Last edited by LuisRodg (2008-04-06 09:06:42)
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Thank you very much.
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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∫ x = 1 to 4 pi(1/x^2)^2 dx
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it's because the volume of a disc is pi r^2 and the radius is the upper y - the lower y and 1/x^2 - 0 = 1/x^2
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Luis, I thought that when you had a horizontal axis of revolution that your equation is in terms of x???
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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Your right. My bad.
So:
So the integral that we setup is in this form:
To be honest, im not sure myself I did it right. Feel free to find any errors on my part because I want to know myself if I did it right. This solids of revolutions were always tricky
Last edited by LuisRodg (2008-04-06 13:39:49)
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you went from:
to:
Can you rationalize the denominator while it's a term of the binomial??
I went from:
to:
So there's some difference in the final answer here.
I'm confused XD
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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Yes I can go from:
to:
because algebraically they are equal.
What your doing is the same thing.
Last edited by LuisRodg (2008-04-06 14:08:11)
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Brain fart.... how?
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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Luis is right
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Brain fart.... how?
Its just algebra. Nothing to do with calculus.
Do you see it now?
Last edited by LuisRodg (2008-04-06 14:09:14)
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Yeah, the algebra was bogging me down, I've been doing too much match today. >.<
Anyways
But in the answer key I am seeinge...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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Depends on how many digits your willing to calculate pi with.
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AHHH!!!! There it is. Lol, all those innocent brain cells sacrificed just because I didn't realize the digits for pi. argh. Thank you soo much.
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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No problem. Pleasure to help you.
Thanks Dragonshade for confirming I was right.
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If I was going to change the axis from x to something like x = 2 the integral would be the same except for y, which would now be (2-y). Correct?
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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You mean changing x=1, x=4 to x=2, x=4?
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No, i mean instead of revolving around the x-axis I revolve the entire thing around y=2 (not x=2 like in the original post, oops, smell the sizzling brain cells yet?).
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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You cant rotate it around y=2. It cuts the graph. You would have to rotate it around the x-axis (y=0) or around y = negative
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You could rotate it around x=1 without cutting the graph. But if you did that the first part of the integral would look like (1-y)?
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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Rotating the graph around x=1 or y=1 or y=2 is completely different.
Can you please specify? Im confused.
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If I was going to change the axis from x to something like x = 2 the integral would be the same except for y, which would now be (2-y). Correct?
What I said there was incorrect (I don't think I can blame this on a long day any longer legitimately). If i rotate the graph of
with boundaries at y=0, x=1, and x=4 around the axis at x=1, then my integral will change from to correct?e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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What you have to realize is that in the initial problem you said to rotate around the x-axis which is the same as rotating around y=0. In which case we setup the integral as dy. If you now rotate around x=1 then the integral changes to dx and it changes completely.
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I think I need to call it a night I posted x=1 something like 3 times in a row, and the whole time I meant y=1, I'm really sorry. You don't need to bother with it anymore I'll get a fresh look tomorrow.
I appreciate your help very much and thanks for putting up with my "coming down from a 48+ hour caffeine induced cram session".
>.>
Here's a kirby for your effort: (>^^)> and thanks again.
e...the red-headed stepchild of math.
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